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Showing posts with label 2009 Past Old Papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label 2009 Past Old Papers. Show all posts

Wednesday, 20 March 2013

Untitled Document

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

English Literature Paper I

{www.Mehnat.Pk}


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



(i) Wordsworth was appointed Poet Laureate in:
(a) 1817
(b) 1839
(c) 1843
(d) 1849
(e) None of these

(ii) Who suggested Shelley to “Curb your magnanimity and be more of a poet’?
(a) Wordsworth
(b) Coleridge
(c) Keats
(d) Blake
(e) None of these

(iii) The lines ‘The one remains, the many change and pass; Heaven’s light for ever shines, earth’s shadow fly; are composed by:
(a) Shelley
(b) Byron
(c) Keats
(d) Southey
(e) None of these

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(iv) ‘On Pathetic Fallacy’ was written by:
(a) Carlyle
(b) Lamb
(c) Ruskin
(d) Shelley
(e) None of these

(v) The 1805 text of ‘The Prelude’ is edited by:
(a) Helen Darbishire
(b) Ernest De Selin Court
(c) Herbert Reads
(d) Coleridge
(e) None of these

(vi) ‘The Lay of the Last Ministerel’ is written by:
(a) Blake
(b) Byron
(c) Tennyson
(d) Walter Scott
(e) None of these

(vii) __________ the quality when man is capable of being in uncertainties, mysteries, doubts, without any irritable reaching after fact and reason’ ___ is:
(a) Objectivity
(b) Subjectivity
(c) Negative capability
(d) Scepticism
(e) None of these

(viii) ‘The Quarterly Review’ was founded by:
(a) Walter Scott
(b) Byron
(c) Coleridge
(d) Thomas De Quincey
(e) None of these

(ix) ‘Mansfield Park’ is a novel by:
(a) Katherine Mansfield
(b) Emily Bronte
(c) George Eliot
(d) Jane Austen
(e) None of these

(x) ‘I am half sick of shadows’ is a line from:
(a) Shelley
(b) Wordsworth
(c) Coleridge
(d) Tennyson
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(xi) Adonais is an elegy on the death of:
(a) Moschus
(b) Edward William
(c) John Keats
(d) Shakespeare
(e) None of these

(xii) ‘Poetry is the criticism of life’ is a view about poetry by:
(a) Arnold
(b) Dr. Johnson
(c) Shelley
(d) Hazlitt
(e) None of these

(xiii) ‘The Pickwick Papers’ by Dickens was published in:
(a) 1837
(b) 1838
(c) 1839
(d) 1841
(e) None of these

(xiv) ‘On Heroes and Hero-worship is written by:
(a) Huxley
(b) Carlyle
(c) Ruskin
(d) Mill
(e) None of these

(xv) Dickens, Thackeray, George Eliot and Trollope are:
(a) Novelists
(b) Poets
(c) Critics
(d) Essayists
(e) None of these

(xvi) ‘The Voyage of the Beagle’ was written by:
(a) J.S. Mill
(b) Ruskin
(c) Carlyle
(d) Darwin
(e) None of these

(xvii) Who gave the aesthetic theory of Art For Arts’ Sake:
(a) Wordsworth
(b) Browning
(c) Oscar Wilde
(d) Galsworthy
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(xviii) “Poetry is not like reasoning, a power to be exerted according to the determination of will”, is a statement by:
(a) Wordsworth
(b) Shelley
(c) Coleridge
(d) Arnold
(e) None of these

(xix) ‘A woman of no importance’ is a ______ by Oscarwilde:
(a) Comedy
(b) Tragedy
(c) Dramatic Romance
(d) Farce
(e) None of these

(xx) George Eliot and T.S. Eliot are:
(a) Brother & Sister
(b) Contemporary writers
(c) Modern poets
(d) Critics
(e) None of these

PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions. Select TWO from each SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I


Q.2. The 19th century Romantic Movement has been variously interpreted as ‘the convalescence of the feeling of beauty’, ‘renaissance of wonder’, ‘split religion’ and ‘erotic nostalgia’. Comment on the aspects giving your own assessment of the movement as it relates to the prescribed poets. (20)

Q.3. “To many readers Shelley’s genius is primarily lyrical: which commonly implies emotional. This is very doubtful – intense and uremitting intellectual activity seems to have been the main characteristic of his mind”. Justify or refute this remark by Graham Hough illustrating from the poems you have read. (20)

Q.4. ‘Wordsworths’ Philosophy of Nature is nothing more than a case of pathetic fallacy because he cannot shake off his egocentricity even when he tends to be philosophic’. Comment. (20)

Q.5. Keats has been called ‘a mystic through the medium of the senses’. Examine the statement in relation to his major odes. (20)

{www.Mehnat.Pk}



SECTION – II

Q.6. Hardy is neither an optimist nor a pessimist. He is essentially a meliorist. Discuss in relation to Hardy’s novels that you have read. (20)

Q.7. Charles Lambs’ essays are called ‘Lyric Poems in Prose’. Give your own comments on this statement referring to Lambs’ Essays of Elia’. (20)

Q.8. Write a detailed critical note on Browning’s Dramatic Monologue with special reference to ‘The Last Ride Together’ and ‘My Last Duchess’. (20)










FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

English Literature Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)

{www.Mehnat.Pk}




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



(i) In Shakespeare’s Tragedies Character is not Destiny but there is Character and Destiny is a remark by:
(a) Nicoll
(b) Goddord
(c) Bradley
(d) Coleridge
(e) None of these

(ii) “How came he dead? I shall not be juggled with: To hell allegiance! Vows, to the blackest devil!
Is a speech in Hamlet spoken by:
(a) Hamlet
(b) Laertes
(c) Polonius
(d) Claudius
(e) None of these

(iii) Aspect of the Novel is written by:
(a) David Cecil
(b) Walter Allen
(c) Arnold Kettle
(d) E.M. Forster
(e) None of these

(iv) Lotos Eaters is a poem by:
(a) Browning
(b) Tennyson
(c) Yeats
(d) Frost
(e) None of these

(v) ‘The Hollow Men’ is written by:
(a) T.S. Eliot
(b) Ezra Pound
(c) Yeats
(d) Larkin
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(vi) William Faulkner was awarded Nobel Prize for literature in:
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1953
(e) None of these

(vii) G.B. Shaw was awarded Nobel Prize for literature in:
(a) 1925
(b) 1929
(c) 1930
(d) 1949
(e) None of these

(viii) ‘The Winding Stair’ is written by:
(a) Ted Hughes
(b) T.S. Eliot
(c) W.B. Yeats
(d) W.H. Auden
(e) None of these

(ix) ‘Murder in the Cathedral’ is a play written by:
(a) Shakespeare
(b) Marlowe
(c) Oscar Wilde
(d) T.S. Eliot
(e) None of these

(x) ‘The Rainbow’ is a novel written by:
(a) Hemingway
(b) Virginia Woolf
(c) E.M. Forster
(d) D.H. Lawrence
(e) None of these

(xi) The earliest play written by Shakespeare according to Oxford Shakespeare 1988 is:
(a) The Taming of the Shrew
(b) As you Like it
(c) Two Gentlemen of Verona
(d) Titus Andronicus
(e) None of these

(xii) ‘If music be the food of love, play on,
give me excess of it, that Surfeiting
The appetite may sicken and die?
is a speech from
(a) Twelfth Night
(b) A Mid Summer Nights’ Dream
(c) As you Like it
(d) The Winters’ Tale
(e) None of these

(xiii) An elaborate classical form in which one Shepherd – Singer laments the death of another is called:
(a) Pastoral Romance
(b) Pastoral Elegy
(c) Ballad
(d) Epic
(e) None of these

(xiv) The poets who believe that a hard, clear image was essential to verse are called:
(a) Imaginists
(b) Romanticists
(c) Classicists
(d) Imagists
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(xv) A figure of speech which contains an exaggeration for emphasis is called:
(a) Over tone
(b) Rhetoric
(c) Extended metaphor
(d) Hyperbole
(e) None of these

(xvi) Rhymed decasyllables, nearly always in iambic Pentameters rhymed in Pairs are called:
(a) Heroic Couplet
(b) Blank verse
(c) Terza Rima
(d) Spenserian stanza
(e) None of these

(xvii) An exhortatory speech, usually delivered to a crowd to incite them to some action is:
(a) Declamation
(b) Sermon
(c) Monologue
(d) Harangue
(e) None of these

(xviii) ‘Hearing’ a colour or ‘Seeing’ a smell is an example of:
(a) Oxymoron
(b) Synaesthesia
(c) Sensuousness
(d) Contrast
(e) None of these

(xix) Drama which seeks to mirror life with the utmost fidelity is called:
(a) Realistic
(b) Naturalistic drama
(c) Humanistic drama
(d) Problem play
(e) None of these

(xx) When Leontes discovers the identity of Perdita in ‘The Winter’s Tale’ is an example of:
(a) Peripety
(b) Suspense
(c) revelation
(d) Discovery
(e) None of these


PART – II

(i) SECTION-I & SECTION-II are to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.

(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions. Select TWO from each SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I


Q.2. “The time is out of joint! O cursed Sprite
That ever I was born to set it right.”
Explain why Hamlet feels so. (20)

Q.3. In Beckett’s play Waiting for Godot the pattern for waiting is an ingenious combination of expectations and let downs, of uncertainty and of gradual run down without end. How far do you agree with this view? (20)

Q.4. “Liza Doolittle transforms herself by Knocking Higgins off his god-like perch”. Do you agree? Substantiate your answer? (20)

Q.5. “Gulliver himself is a touchstone, a standard, a reporting agent, but he is not a person”. Explain and discuss with reference to Gulliver’s Travels. (20)



SECTION – II


Q.6. “Poem begin in delight and end in wisdom and deep understanding.” Discuss in the light of this Frost- Statement The Tuft of Flowers and Mending Wall. (20)

Q.7. “Here is a limited world; but she interprets it with the penetrating insight of the creative artist”. Discuss this remark about Jane Austen in the light of Pride and Prejudice. (20)

Q.8. Stock says of ‘The Second Coming’ that in this poem Yeats sets his own age in the perspective of eternity and condenses a whole philosophy of history into it so that it has the force of Prophecy’. Discuss. (20)


Untitled Document

CSS Exam English Literature 2009 Group-I Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

Untitled Document

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

English Literature Paper I

{www.Mehnat.Pk}


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



(i) Wordsworth was appointed Poet Laureate in:
(a) 1817
(b) 1839
(c) 1843
(d) 1849
(e) None of these

(ii) Who suggested Shelley to “Curb your magnanimity and be more of a poet’?
(a) Wordsworth
(b) Coleridge
(c) Keats
(d) Blake
(e) None of these

(iii) The lines ‘The one remains, the many change and pass; Heaven’s light for ever shines, earth’s shadow fly; are composed by:
(a) Shelley
(b) Byron
(c) Keats
(d) Southey
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(iv) ‘On Pathetic Fallacy’ was written by:
(a) Carlyle
(b) Lamb
(c) Ruskin
(d) Shelley
(e) None of these

(v) The 1805 text of ‘The Prelude’ is edited by:
(a) Helen Darbishire
(b) Ernest De Selin Court
(c) Herbert Reads
(d) Coleridge
(e) None of these

(vi) ‘The Lay of the Last Ministerel’ is written by:
(a) Blake
(b) Byron
(c) Tennyson
(d) Walter Scott
(e) None of these

(vii) __________ the quality when man is capable of being in uncertainties, mysteries, doubts, without any irritable reaching after fact and reason’ ___ is:
(a) Objectivity
(b) Subjectivity
(c) Negative capability
(d) Scepticism
(e) None of these

(viii) ‘The Quarterly Review’ was founded by:
(a) Walter Scott
(b) Byron
(c) Coleridge
(d) Thomas De Quincey
(e) None of these

(ix) ‘Mansfield Park’ is a novel by:
(a) Katherine Mansfield
(b) Emily Bronte
(c) George Eliot
(d) Jane Austen
(e) None of these

(x) ‘I am half sick of shadows’ is a line from:
(a) Shelley
(b) Wordsworth
(c) Coleridge
(d) Tennyson
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(xi) Adonais is an elegy on the death of:
(a) Moschus
(b) Edward William
(c) John Keats
(d) Shakespeare
(e) None of these

(xii) ‘Poetry is the criticism of life’ is a view about poetry by:
(a) Arnold
(b) Dr. Johnson
(c) Shelley
(d) Hazlitt
(e) None of these

(xiii) ‘The Pickwick Papers’ by Dickens was published in:
(a) 1837
(b) 1838
(c) 1839
(d) 1841
(e) None of these

(xiv) ‘On Heroes and Hero-worship is written by:
(a) Huxley
(b) Carlyle
(c) Ruskin
(d) Mill
(e) None of these

(xv) Dickens, Thackeray, George Eliot and Trollope are:
(a) Novelists
(b) Poets
(c) Critics
(d) Essayists
(e) None of these

(xvi) ‘The Voyage of the Beagle’ was written by:
(a) J.S. Mill
(b) Ruskin
(c) Carlyle
(d) Darwin
(e) None of these

(xvii) Who gave the aesthetic theory of Art For Arts’ Sake:
(a) Wordsworth
(b) Browning
(c) Oscar Wilde
(d) Galsworthy
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(xviii) “Poetry is not like reasoning, a power to be exerted according to the determination of will”, is a statement by:
(a) Wordsworth
(b) Shelley
(c) Coleridge
(d) Arnold
(e) None of these

(xix) ‘A woman of no importance’ is a ______ by Oscarwilde:
(a) Comedy
(b) Tragedy
(c) Dramatic Romance
(d) Farce
(e) None of these

(xx) George Eliot and T.S. Eliot are:
(a) Brother & Sister
(b) Contemporary writers
(c) Modern poets
(d) Critics
(e) None of these

PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions. Select TWO from each SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I


Q.2. The 19th century Romantic Movement has been variously interpreted as ‘the convalescence of the feeling of beauty’, ‘renaissance of wonder’, ‘split religion’ and ‘erotic nostalgia’. Comment on the aspects giving your own assessment of the movement as it relates to the prescribed poets. (20)

Q.3. “To many readers Shelley’s genius is primarily lyrical: which commonly implies emotional. This is very doubtful – intense and uremitting intellectual activity seems to have been the main characteristic of his mind”. Justify or refute this remark by Graham Hough illustrating from the poems you have read. (20)

Q.4. ‘Wordsworths’ Philosophy of Nature is nothing more than a case of pathetic fallacy because he cannot shake off his egocentricity even when he tends to be philosophic’. Comment. (20)

Q.5. Keats has been called ‘a mystic through the medium of the senses’. Examine the statement in relation to his major odes. (20)

{www.Mehnat.Pk}



SECTION – II

Q.6. Hardy is neither an optimist nor a pessimist. He is essentially a meliorist. Discuss in relation to Hardy’s novels that you have read. (20)

Q.7. Charles Lambs’ essays are called ‘Lyric Poems in Prose’. Give your own comments on this statement referring to Lambs’ Essays of Elia’. (20)

Q.8. Write a detailed critical note on Browning’s Dramatic Monologue with special reference to ‘The Last Ride Together’ and ‘My Last Duchess’. (20)










FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

English Literature Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)

{www.Mehnat.Pk}




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



(i) In Shakespeare’s Tragedies Character is not Destiny but there is Character and Destiny is a remark by:
(a) Nicoll
(b) Goddord
(c) Bradley
(d) Coleridge
(e) None of these

(ii) “How came he dead? I shall not be juggled with: To hell allegiance! Vows, to the blackest devil!
Is a speech in Hamlet spoken by:
(a) Hamlet
(b) Laertes
(c) Polonius
(d) Claudius
(e) None of these

(iii) Aspect of the Novel is written by:
(a) David Cecil
(b) Walter Allen
(c) Arnold Kettle
(d) E.M. Forster
(e) None of these

(iv) Lotos Eaters is a poem by:
(a) Browning
(b) Tennyson
(c) Yeats
(d) Frost
(e) None of these

(v) ‘The Hollow Men’ is written by:
(a) T.S. Eliot
(b) Ezra Pound
(c) Yeats
(d) Larkin
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(vi) William Faulkner was awarded Nobel Prize for literature in:
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1953
(e) None of these

(vii) G.B. Shaw was awarded Nobel Prize for literature in:
(a) 1925
(b) 1929
(c) 1930
(d) 1949
(e) None of these

(viii) ‘The Winding Stair’ is written by:
(a) Ted Hughes
(b) T.S. Eliot
(c) W.B. Yeats
(d) W.H. Auden
(e) None of these

(ix) ‘Murder in the Cathedral’ is a play written by:
(a) Shakespeare
(b) Marlowe
(c) Oscar Wilde
(d) T.S. Eliot
(e) None of these

(x) ‘The Rainbow’ is a novel written by:
(a) Hemingway
(b) Virginia Woolf
(c) E.M. Forster
(d) D.H. Lawrence
(e) None of these

(xi) The earliest play written by Shakespeare according to Oxford Shakespeare 1988 is:
(a) The Taming of the Shrew
(b) As you Like it
(c) Two Gentlemen of Verona
(d) Titus Andronicus
(e) None of these

(xii) ‘If music be the food of love, play on,
give me excess of it, that Surfeiting
The appetite may sicken and die?
is a speech from
(a) Twelfth Night
(b) A Mid Summer Nights’ Dream
(c) As you Like it
(d) The Winters’ Tale
(e) None of these

(xiii) An elaborate classical form in which one Shepherd – Singer laments the death of another is called:
(a) Pastoral Romance
(b) Pastoral Elegy
(c) Ballad
(d) Epic
(e) None of these

(xiv) The poets who believe that a hard, clear image was essential to verse are called:
(a) Imaginists
(b) Romanticists
(c) Classicists
(d) Imagists
(e) None of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(xv) A figure of speech which contains an exaggeration for emphasis is called:
(a) Over tone
(b) Rhetoric
(c) Extended metaphor
(d) Hyperbole
(e) None of these

(xvi) Rhymed decasyllables, nearly always in iambic Pentameters rhymed in Pairs are called:
(a) Heroic Couplet
(b) Blank verse
(c) Terza Rima
(d) Spenserian stanza
(e) None of these

(xvii) An exhortatory speech, usually delivered to a crowd to incite them to some action is:
(a) Declamation
(b) Sermon
(c) Monologue
(d) Harangue
(e) None of these

(xviii) ‘Hearing’ a colour or ‘Seeing’ a smell is an example of:
(a) Oxymoron
(b) Synaesthesia
(c) Sensuousness
(d) Contrast
(e) None of these

(xix) Drama which seeks to mirror life with the utmost fidelity is called:
(a) Realistic
(b) Naturalistic drama
(c) Humanistic drama
(d) Problem play
(e) None of these

(xx) When Leontes discovers the identity of Perdita in ‘The Winter’s Tale’ is an example of:
(a) Peripety
(b) Suspense
(c) revelation
(d) Discovery
(e) None of these


PART – II

(i) SECTION-I & SECTION-II are to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.

(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions. Select TWO from each SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I


Q.2. “The time is out of joint! O cursed Sprite
That ever I was born to set it right.”
Explain why Hamlet feels so. (20)

Q.3. In Beckett’s play Waiting for Godot the pattern for waiting is an ingenious combination of expectations and let downs, of uncertainty and of gradual run down without end. How far do you agree with this view? (20)

Q.4. “Liza Doolittle transforms herself by Knocking Higgins off his god-like perch”. Do you agree? Substantiate your answer? (20)

Q.5. “Gulliver himself is a touchstone, a standard, a reporting agent, but he is not a person”. Explain and discuss with reference to Gulliver’s Travels. (20)



SECTION – II


Q.6. “Poem begin in delight and end in wisdom and deep understanding.” Discuss in the light of this Frost- Statement The Tuft of Flowers and Mending Wall. (20)

Q.7. “Here is a limited world; but she interprets it with the penetrating insight of the creative artist”. Discuss this remark about Jane Austen in the light of Pride and Prejudice. (20)

Q.8. Stock says of ‘The Second Coming’ that in this poem Yeats sets his own age in the perspective of eternity and condenses a whole philosophy of history into it so that it has the force of Prophecy’. Discuss. (20)


Untitled Document

Posted at 3/20/2013 08:18:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan
Untitled Document

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

 






CSS Exam Arabic 2009 Group-I Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

Untitled Document

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

 






Posted at 3/20/2013 08:11:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk


CSS Exam Punjabi 2009 Group-H Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk


Posted at 3/20/2013 07:44:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk





CSS Exam Pushto 2009 Group-H Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk





Posted at 3/20/2013 07:39:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Psychology Including Exp Psychology Paper I

{www.Mehnat.Pk}
TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

1. In psychology , case studies are used to :
a. draw conclusions , about individual behavior on the basis of group finding
b. draw general conclusions about behaviour of the client
c. assess heretibility of individual
d. show importance of case studies.
e. None of these

2. psychology is concenered with the study of :
a. how group exchange resources
b. overt behavior only
c. mind and behavior
d. how aggregate behavior is specified
e. none of these

3. an independent variable is
a. the only variable of interest
b. a variable that is independently verified
c. a variable whose value depends on dependent variable
d. the variable that is manipulated by experimenter
e. none of these

4. introspection is :
a. a scientific method used to study dreams
b. a psychotherapeutic technique where the patient gives a running account of internal dialogues
c. a process used to uncover symbolic representation in dream
d. the analysis of the content of our own thoughts.
e. None of these

5. The law of effect states that :
a. close temporal contiguity is the key characteristic in forming an association between stimulus and response.
b. A response will be strengthened if the organism is rewarded for that response
c. effect is strong if the effect is long lasting.
d. Response generalize across similar surroundings.
e. None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
6. structuralism and functionalism are similar in that both :
a. emphasize the analysis of mental structures to explain behavior
b. emphasize the fluid, personal nature of consciousness.
c. Regard psychology as the science of conscious experience.
d. Emphasize the observation of behavior rather than consciousness.
e. None of these.

7. the school of psychology that argues that nearly all behaviour is a result of conditioning and that the environment shapes behavior is labeled
a. getalt, wertheimer
b. psychoanalytic, freud
c. behaviorism, tichner
d. behaviorism, Watson
e. none of these

8. chemical which are produced in the brain, and facilitate communication between nerve cells are called:
a. neurotransmitter
b. plasmas
c. syntactic structures
d. adrenocorticoids
e. none of these

9. psychologists , who typically apply psychological principles to diagnose and treat emotional problems , including illness and marital and family conflict are in the subfield called :
a. biological
b. clinical and counseling
c. social and personality
d. school and educational
e. none of these

10. the first step in any research project is generating a:
a. theory
b. experiment
c. hypothesis
d. proposition
e. none of these

11. the discipline that deals with sampling data from a population and then drawing inferences about the population from the sample is :
a. hypothesis testing
b. statistics
c. multivariate experimentation
d. independent sampling
e. none of these

12. when two variables are correlated , variation in one ?
a. may possibly cause variation in the other.
b. Can only be inferred with social validation
c. Can be cause of variation in the other only if the correction is positive.
d. Always suggests a causal relationship with the other.
e. None of these.
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
13. in the early stages of research , the most efficient way of making progress toward explaining phenomenon is to :
a. videotape
b. precisely measure
c. survey
d. observe
e. none of these

14. a scholarly summary of a body of research on some topic is called
a. case history
b. literature review
c. meta-analysis
d. theory
e. none of these

15. the principle governing the ethical treatment of human participants in research essentially states that the hazards anticipated in the research project should be not grater than those encountered in the daily activities.
a. informed consent
b. right to privacy
c. minimal risk
d. informed participants
e. none of these

16. S-R psychology is an approach associated with the perspective :
a. behavioral
b. psychoanalytic
c. cognitive
d. subjectivst
e. none of these

17. psychologists whoa re interests in the perception of motion, part-whole relationship and in how people judge size were identified with what shool of psychology?
a. psychoanalytic
b. gestalt
c. behavioral
d. structural
e. none of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
18. the center of freud’s theory is the thoughts, attitudes, impulses , wished and motivations of which we are unaware:
a. conditioning concept
b. unconsciousness
c. biological motivation proposition
d. multivariate construct
e. none of these

19. relating overt behavior to electrical anc chemical events taking place inside the body is characteristic of which contemporary perspective?
a. behavioral
b. subjectivist
c. biological
d. cognitive
e. none of these

20. the subjetivist perspective in psychology:
a. is most like cognitive one
b. is generally not influenced by cultural and emotional variables
c. has been most pervasive
d. all of these
e. none of these







PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q2: Define psychology and describe in brief about various schools of psychology

Q3: describe the development of Nervous System with special refrence on the central nervous system

Q4: Introduce the various theories of learning and Explain the concepts of classical conditioning.

Q5: describe the nature of Emotions in reflection to different approaches for understanding Emotions.

Q6: list the various theories of personality and write about the best one in detail.

Q7: write down the components that comprise attitudes, specially in reflection to the cognitive and affective reactions to social Events.

Q8 write short notes on ANY FOUR of the following :
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
1. trends in psychology
2. peripheral nervous system
3. brain
4. transfer and interference
5. maslow, theory of motivation
6. emotions and characters
7. frustration and conflict
8. defence mechanism








FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Psychology Including Experimental Psychology Paper Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)


{www.Mehnat.Pk}
1. a child is creating new schemata to account for new information , piaget calls this process
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. operations
d. functional autonomy
e. none of these

2. children begin to understand and use abstractions during which of the piaget stages of congnitive development
a. oral
b. preoperational
c. state of formal operations
d. secondary stage
e. none of these

3. which theoretical viewpoint emphasizes the importance of learning for understanding development
a. fruedian
b. information processing theory
c. ecological theory
d. behavioral theory
e. none of these

4. behavior is governed by its consequences describe:

a. operant conditioning
b. psychological crisis
c. supply demand theory
d. the yerkes Dodson law
e. none of these

5. which of the following statement is incorrect
a. genetic influences affect children more than adults
b. even if genetic factors underlie a particular behavior, it is subject to change
c. trait suchs as extroversion and introversion are influenced by genes
d. intelligence has a genetic basis
e. none of these

6. if characteristic requires only one gene to show itself the characteristic is considered:
a. dominant
b. co-dominant
c. imcompletly dominant
d. recessive
e. none of these

7. a genetic disorder in which the production of mucous affects the respiratory system is
a. huntington’s disease
b. down syndrome
c. cystic fibrosis
d. sickle cell anemia
e. none of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
8. aptitudes are
a. preferences to perform certain activities
b. high level of achievment in an area endevour
c. the ablities of individual to learn in specific endevour
d. skills one brings to a given task
e. none of these

9.in psychological research, a ……… is defined as an entity that can occur with different values
a. hypothesis
b. measurement system
c. variable
d. experiement group
e. none of these

10.ablity to exercise precise control over a variable is what distinguishes the ……. Method from other methods of scientific observation
f. control group identification
g. randomized selection
h. hypthesis testing
i. experiemental
j. none of these

11. consideration of participants in psychological research as …….. in the research enterprise is a central principle of ethical research today
a. informed participants
b. full partners
c. willing participants
d. co-investigators
e. none of these

12. maturation refers to
a. the attainment of successive stages of cognitive development
b. relatively stable chancges in an individual’s thought or behavior as a result of a biological process of aging.
c. Relatively stable changes in an individual’s thought or behaior as a result of accumulating experience
d. The development of an individual’s thought and behavior due to interaction of biological and environmental factors
e. None of these

13. learning refers to
a. the attainment of successive stages of cognitive development
b. changes in an individual’s thought or behavior as a result of biological process of aging
c. changes in an individual’s thought and behavior as result of accumulating experience
d. The development of an individual’s thought and behavior due to interaction of biological and environmental factors
e. none of these

14. psychodynamic determinism refers to
a. behavior that is ruled by forces over which we have no control
b. behavior that is preconscious in orgin
c. id impulses that will forever remain unfulfilled
d. the delimiting characteristics of superego
e. none of these

15. according to Freudian dream terminonlogy, condensation refers to
a. repressed urges that find disguised outlets for expression
b. the bizarre , irrational quality of dream
c. the process whereby unacceptable thoughts or impulses are combined into a single dream image
d. process where one thing may stand for another in dream interpretation
e. none of these

16. according to one definition, behavior is abnormal if
a. labeled as abnormal by the society in which the individual lives
b. not under conscious control by individual statistically typical
c. statistically typical
d. adaptive to the individual
e. none of these

17. Axis III in DSM-IV address:
a. the major abnormal disorders
b. primary personality disorders
c. physical disorders
d. the severity of psychological symptoms
e. none of these

18. an individual who is identified as having a borderline personality disorder shows
a. percectory thoughts
b. exhibitionistic tendencies
c. instability in mood and social relations
d. apathy and indifference to openion of others
e. none of these

19. clinical interview typically includes
a. a follow up evaluation and assessment after therapy is terminated
b. the initial diagnosis of a client’s psychological functioning
c. the psycho physiological functioning
d. the client’s inititial and final evaluation
e. none of these

20.two explicitly directive psychotherapeutic approaches are
a. behavior therapy and psychodynamic therapy
b. behavior therapy and humanistic therapy
c. humanistic therapy and existential therapy
d. cognitive therapy and behavior therapy
e. none of these.








PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q2 : define growth , development and maturation and explain the role of biological and sociological factors in the process of development.

Q3: differenciate between ANY TWO of the following development area:
1. physical development- social development
2. sensory development- intellectual development
3. perceptual development- emotional development
4. personality development- fine motor development

Q4: list the different types of assessment procedcures\tools used for clinical diasgnosis and explain the significance of clinical judgment in the process of assessment.

Q5 list various therapies used in psychogical treatment and write about any two in detail.

Q6 define intelligence in refrence to factors factors of intelligence and write how intelligence test can be used for identification of disablitiy in general and mental regardation in specific

Q7 describe the role of biological and sociological factors in development of maladujustment and criminal behaviour and explain the treatment strategies.

Q8 : define any five of the following :

1. infancy
2. genetics
3. chromosomal abnormalities
4. motor development
5. emotional pattern
6. mental retardation
7. character disorder
8. juvenile delinquency
9. group dynamics.

 

CSS Exam Psychology 2009 Group-G Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Psychology Including Exp Psychology Paper I

{www.Mehnat.Pk}
TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

1. In psychology , case studies are used to :
a. draw conclusions , about individual behavior on the basis of group finding
b. draw general conclusions about behaviour of the client
c. assess heretibility of individual
d. show importance of case studies.
e. None of these

2. psychology is concenered with the study of :
a. how group exchange resources
b. overt behavior only
c. mind and behavior
d. how aggregate behavior is specified
e. none of these

3. an independent variable is
a. the only variable of interest
b. a variable that is independently verified
c. a variable whose value depends on dependent variable
d. the variable that is manipulated by experimenter
e. none of these

4. introspection is :
a. a scientific method used to study dreams
b. a psychotherapeutic technique where the patient gives a running account of internal dialogues
c. a process used to uncover symbolic representation in dream
d. the analysis of the content of our own thoughts.
e. None of these

5. The law of effect states that :
a. close temporal contiguity is the key characteristic in forming an association between stimulus and response.
b. A response will be strengthened if the organism is rewarded for that response
c. effect is strong if the effect is long lasting.
d. Response generalize across similar surroundings.
e. None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
6. structuralism and functionalism are similar in that both :
a. emphasize the analysis of mental structures to explain behavior
b. emphasize the fluid, personal nature of consciousness.
c. Regard psychology as the science of conscious experience.
d. Emphasize the observation of behavior rather than consciousness.
e. None of these.

7. the school of psychology that argues that nearly all behaviour is a result of conditioning and that the environment shapes behavior is labeled
a. getalt, wertheimer
b. psychoanalytic, freud
c. behaviorism, tichner
d. behaviorism, Watson
e. none of these

8. chemical which are produced in the brain, and facilitate communication between nerve cells are called:
a. neurotransmitter
b. plasmas
c. syntactic structures
d. adrenocorticoids
e. none of these

9. psychologists , who typically apply psychological principles to diagnose and treat emotional problems , including illness and marital and family conflict are in the subfield called :
a. biological
b. clinical and counseling
c. social and personality
d. school and educational
e. none of these

10. the first step in any research project is generating a:
a. theory
b. experiment
c. hypothesis
d. proposition
e. none of these

11. the discipline that deals with sampling data from a population and then drawing inferences about the population from the sample is :
a. hypothesis testing
b. statistics
c. multivariate experimentation
d. independent sampling
e. none of these

12. when two variables are correlated , variation in one ?
a. may possibly cause variation in the other.
b. Can only be inferred with social validation
c. Can be cause of variation in the other only if the correction is positive.
d. Always suggests a causal relationship with the other.
e. None of these.
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
13. in the early stages of research , the most efficient way of making progress toward explaining phenomenon is to :
a. videotape
b. precisely measure
c. survey
d. observe
e. none of these

14. a scholarly summary of a body of research on some topic is called
a. case history
b. literature review
c. meta-analysis
d. theory
e. none of these

15. the principle governing the ethical treatment of human participants in research essentially states that the hazards anticipated in the research project should be not grater than those encountered in the daily activities.
a. informed consent
b. right to privacy
c. minimal risk
d. informed participants
e. none of these

16. S-R psychology is an approach associated with the perspective :
a. behavioral
b. psychoanalytic
c. cognitive
d. subjectivst
e. none of these

17. psychologists whoa re interests in the perception of motion, part-whole relationship and in how people judge size were identified with what shool of psychology?
a. psychoanalytic
b. gestalt
c. behavioral
d. structural
e. none of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
18. the center of freud’s theory is the thoughts, attitudes, impulses , wished and motivations of which we are unaware:
a. conditioning concept
b. unconsciousness
c. biological motivation proposition
d. multivariate construct
e. none of these

19. relating overt behavior to electrical anc chemical events taking place inside the body is characteristic of which contemporary perspective?
a. behavioral
b. subjectivist
c. biological
d. cognitive
e. none of these

20. the subjetivist perspective in psychology:
a. is most like cognitive one
b. is generally not influenced by cultural and emotional variables
c. has been most pervasive
d. all of these
e. none of these







PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q2: Define psychology and describe in brief about various schools of psychology

Q3: describe the development of Nervous System with special refrence on the central nervous system

Q4: Introduce the various theories of learning and Explain the concepts of classical conditioning.

Q5: describe the nature of Emotions in reflection to different approaches for understanding Emotions.

Q6: list the various theories of personality and write about the best one in detail.

Q7: write down the components that comprise attitudes, specially in reflection to the cognitive and affective reactions to social Events.

Q8 write short notes on ANY FOUR of the following :
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
1. trends in psychology
2. peripheral nervous system
3. brain
4. transfer and interference
5. maslow, theory of motivation
6. emotions and characters
7. frustration and conflict
8. defence mechanism








FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Psychology Including Experimental Psychology Paper Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)


{www.Mehnat.Pk}
1. a child is creating new schemata to account for new information , piaget calls this process
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. operations
d. functional autonomy
e. none of these

2. children begin to understand and use abstractions during which of the piaget stages of congnitive development
a. oral
b. preoperational
c. state of formal operations
d. secondary stage
e. none of these

3. which theoretical viewpoint emphasizes the importance of learning for understanding development
a. fruedian
b. information processing theory
c. ecological theory
d. behavioral theory
e. none of these

4. behavior is governed by its consequences describe:

a. operant conditioning
b. psychological crisis
c. supply demand theory
d. the yerkes Dodson law
e. none of these

5. which of the following statement is incorrect
a. genetic influences affect children more than adults
b. even if genetic factors underlie a particular behavior, it is subject to change
c. trait suchs as extroversion and introversion are influenced by genes
d. intelligence has a genetic basis
e. none of these

6. if characteristic requires only one gene to show itself the characteristic is considered:
a. dominant
b. co-dominant
c. imcompletly dominant
d. recessive
e. none of these

7. a genetic disorder in which the production of mucous affects the respiratory system is
a. huntington’s disease
b. down syndrome
c. cystic fibrosis
d. sickle cell anemia
e. none of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
8. aptitudes are
a. preferences to perform certain activities
b. high level of achievment in an area endevour
c. the ablities of individual to learn in specific endevour
d. skills one brings to a given task
e. none of these

9.in psychological research, a ……… is defined as an entity that can occur with different values
a. hypothesis
b. measurement system
c. variable
d. experiement group
e. none of these

10.ablity to exercise precise control over a variable is what distinguishes the ……. Method from other methods of scientific observation
f. control group identification
g. randomized selection
h. hypthesis testing
i. experiemental
j. none of these

11. consideration of participants in psychological research as …….. in the research enterprise is a central principle of ethical research today
a. informed participants
b. full partners
c. willing participants
d. co-investigators
e. none of these

12. maturation refers to
a. the attainment of successive stages of cognitive development
b. relatively stable chancges in an individual’s thought or behavior as a result of a biological process of aging.
c. Relatively stable changes in an individual’s thought or behaior as a result of accumulating experience
d. The development of an individual’s thought and behavior due to interaction of biological and environmental factors
e. None of these

13. learning refers to
a. the attainment of successive stages of cognitive development
b. changes in an individual’s thought or behavior as a result of biological process of aging
c. changes in an individual’s thought and behavior as result of accumulating experience
d. The development of an individual’s thought and behavior due to interaction of biological and environmental factors
e. none of these

14. psychodynamic determinism refers to
a. behavior that is ruled by forces over which we have no control
b. behavior that is preconscious in orgin
c. id impulses that will forever remain unfulfilled
d. the delimiting characteristics of superego
e. none of these

15. according to Freudian dream terminonlogy, condensation refers to
a. repressed urges that find disguised outlets for expression
b. the bizarre , irrational quality of dream
c. the process whereby unacceptable thoughts or impulses are combined into a single dream image
d. process where one thing may stand for another in dream interpretation
e. none of these

16. according to one definition, behavior is abnormal if
a. labeled as abnormal by the society in which the individual lives
b. not under conscious control by individual statistically typical
c. statistically typical
d. adaptive to the individual
e. none of these

17. Axis III in DSM-IV address:
a. the major abnormal disorders
b. primary personality disorders
c. physical disorders
d. the severity of psychological symptoms
e. none of these

18. an individual who is identified as having a borderline personality disorder shows
a. percectory thoughts
b. exhibitionistic tendencies
c. instability in mood and social relations
d. apathy and indifference to openion of others
e. none of these

19. clinical interview typically includes
a. a follow up evaluation and assessment after therapy is terminated
b. the initial diagnosis of a client’s psychological functioning
c. the psycho physiological functioning
d. the client’s inititial and final evaluation
e. none of these

20.two explicitly directive psychotherapeutic approaches are
a. behavior therapy and psychodynamic therapy
b. behavior therapy and humanistic therapy
c. humanistic therapy and existential therapy
d. cognitive therapy and behavior therapy
e. none of these.








PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q2 : define growth , development and maturation and explain the role of biological and sociological factors in the process of development.

Q3: differenciate between ANY TWO of the following development area:
1. physical development- social development
2. sensory development- intellectual development
3. perceptual development- emotional development
4. personality development- fine motor development

Q4: list the different types of assessment procedcures\tools used for clinical diasgnosis and explain the significance of clinical judgment in the process of assessment.

Q5 list various therapies used in psychogical treatment and write about any two in detail.

Q6 define intelligence in refrence to factors factors of intelligence and write how intelligence test can be used for identification of disablitiy in general and mental regardation in specific

Q7 describe the role of biological and sociological factors in development of maladujustment and criminal behaviour and explain the treatment strategies.

Q8 : define any five of the following :

1. infancy
2. genetics
3. chromosomal abnormalities
4. motor development
5. emotional pattern
6. mental retardation
7. character disorder
8. juvenile delinquency
9. group dynamics.

 

Posted at 3/20/2013 07:28:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

CSS Exam Philosophy 2009 Group-G Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

Posted at 3/20/2013 07:21:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Muslim Law And Jurisprudence

{www.Mehnat.Pk}
TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Who founded the ‘Kufa School’?
(a) Imam Abu Hanifa
(b) Imam Malik
(c) Imam Jafar-as-Sadik
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(ii) Through a gift a Muslim can transfer his/her:
(a) 1/3rd of property
(b) ½ of the property
(c) 2/3rd of property
(d) None of these

(iii) A plurality of husbands is called:
(a) Polyandry
(b) Bigamy
(c) Polygamy
(d) None of these

(iv) A man is prohibited to marry his daughter on the ground of:
(a) Affinity
(b) Consanguinity
(c) Fosterage
(d) None of these

(v) A widow is entitled to maintenance:
(a) For one year
(b) For two years
(c) During the period of Idda
(d) None of these

(vi) A divorce by Zihar means:
(a) Apostasy from Islam by a husband
(b) False accusation of adultery by husband
(c) An agreement between husband and wife to dissolve marriage
(d) None of these

(vii) According to Pakistani law, a child is legitimate if born:
(a) Within 280 days of the termination of marriage
(b) Within one year of the termination of marriage
(c) Within two years of the termination of marriage
(d) None of these

(viii) A Muslim wife can unilaterally exercise the right of Talaq:
(a) By Khula
(b) By Li’an
(c) By Tafweez
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(ix) The dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act was enacted in:
(a) 1939
(b) 1949
(c) 1961
(d) None of these

(x)What is marriageable age for a male Muslim under the Pakistani Law:
(a) 14 years
(b) 16 years
(c) 18 years
(d) None of these

(xi) Law governing Muslim Succession was enacted in:
(a) 1929
(b) 1961
(c) 1979
(d) None of these

(xii) A Muslim man dies leaving behind two widows and a daughter. The collective share of the widows would be?
(a) 1/8th
(b) 1/4th
(c) ½
(d) None of these

(xiii) A Muslim can bequeath 1/3rd of his property to his heirs:
(a) With the consent of other heirs
(b) Without the consent of other heirs
(c) With the approval of the court
(d) None of these

(xiv) The primary sources of Islamic Law are:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xv) Amongst the first four Caliphs, whose period of Caliphate was the longest:
(a) Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A)
(b) Hazrat Osman (R.A)
(c) Hazrat Ali (R.A)
(d) None of these

(xvi) The famous Jurist Al-qama was the pupil of:
(a) Imam Abu Hanifa
(b) Ibn Abbas
(c) Ibn Mas’ud
(d) None of these

(xvii) Ijma means:
(a) A gathering of Mujtahids
(b) Consensus of openion
(c) Law-making
(d) None of these

(xviii) Who was appointed as Qadi by Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A) ?
(a) Hazrat Omar (R.A)
(b) Hazrat Osman (R.A)
(c) Hazrat Ali (R.A)
(d) None of these

(xix) Imam Ash-Shafi was the pupil of:
(a) Imam Abu Hanifa
(b) Abu Yusuf
(c) Imam Malik
(d) None of these

(xx) Janayat deals with:
(a) Crime
(b) Torts
(c) Sale
(d) None of these

 {www.Mehnat.Pk}






PART – II



NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt only FOUR questions from PART II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.





Q.2 Explain the essentials of Valid Gift. A, who owns a house makes a gift to B of the house and of the right to the use a staircase used by him jointly with a owner of an adjoining house. Is it a valid Gift explain?

Q.3 A Muslim marriage is a civil contract. Do you think that the contracting parties have equal rights in rescinding a marriage contract? Give rationale.

Q.4 Under section 4 of the Muslim Family Laws ordinance an orphan grandchild in entitled to the share of his/her predeceased parent. Explain fully the issue; argue for or against the provision.

Q.5 A Muslim male dies leaving behind a widow, a daughter an agnatic granddaughter and a father. Distribute the property of the deceased/ praepositus amongst the heirs. Explain the basis for the distribution of property to each and every heir.

Q.6 What is ijtehad? What are the qualifications of a Mujtahid? Compare Ijtihad with istehsan.

Q.7 Explain fully the status of a bigamous marriage under the classical Islamic Law and compare it with Pakistani law.

Q.8 Write a comprehensive note on the Islamization of the laws in Pakistan. Do you think that islamization of laws has in any way improved the Judicial and Governance systems of the Country?

CSS Exam Muslim Law And Jurisprudence 2009 Group-F Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Muslim Law And Jurisprudence

{www.Mehnat.Pk}
TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Who founded the ‘Kufa School’?
(a) Imam Abu Hanifa
(b) Imam Malik
(c) Imam Jafar-as-Sadik
(d) None of these
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(ii) Through a gift a Muslim can transfer his/her:
(a) 1/3rd of property
(b) ½ of the property
(c) 2/3rd of property
(d) None of these

(iii) A plurality of husbands is called:
(a) Polyandry
(b) Bigamy
(c) Polygamy
(d) None of these

(iv) A man is prohibited to marry his daughter on the ground of:
(a) Affinity
(b) Consanguinity
(c) Fosterage
(d) None of these

(v) A widow is entitled to maintenance:
(a) For one year
(b) For two years
(c) During the period of Idda
(d) None of these

(vi) A divorce by Zihar means:
(a) Apostasy from Islam by a husband
(b) False accusation of adultery by husband
(c) An agreement between husband and wife to dissolve marriage
(d) None of these

(vii) According to Pakistani law, a child is legitimate if born:
(a) Within 280 days of the termination of marriage
(b) Within one year of the termination of marriage
(c) Within two years of the termination of marriage
(d) None of these

(viii) A Muslim wife can unilaterally exercise the right of Talaq:
(a) By Khula
(b) By Li’an
(c) By Tafweez
(d) None of these
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(ix) The dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act was enacted in:
(a) 1939
(b) 1949
(c) 1961
(d) None of these

(x)What is marriageable age for a male Muslim under the Pakistani Law:
(a) 14 years
(b) 16 years
(c) 18 years
(d) None of these

(xi) Law governing Muslim Succession was enacted in:
(a) 1929
(b) 1961
(c) 1979
(d) None of these

(xii) A Muslim man dies leaving behind two widows and a daughter. The collective share of the widows would be?
(a) 1/8th
(b) 1/4th
(c) ½
(d) None of these

(xiii) A Muslim can bequeath 1/3rd of his property to his heirs:
(a) With the consent of other heirs
(b) Without the consent of other heirs
(c) With the approval of the court
(d) None of these

(xiv) The primary sources of Islamic Law are:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these
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(xv) Amongst the first four Caliphs, whose period of Caliphate was the longest:
(a) Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A)
(b) Hazrat Osman (R.A)
(c) Hazrat Ali (R.A)
(d) None of these

(xvi) The famous Jurist Al-qama was the pupil of:
(a) Imam Abu Hanifa
(b) Ibn Abbas
(c) Ibn Mas’ud
(d) None of these

(xvii) Ijma means:
(a) A gathering of Mujtahids
(b) Consensus of openion
(c) Law-making
(d) None of these

(xviii) Who was appointed as Qadi by Hazrat Abu Bakr (R.A) ?
(a) Hazrat Omar (R.A)
(b) Hazrat Osman (R.A)
(c) Hazrat Ali (R.A)
(d) None of these

(xix) Imam Ash-Shafi was the pupil of:
(a) Imam Abu Hanifa
(b) Abu Yusuf
(c) Imam Malik
(d) None of these

(xx) Janayat deals with:
(a) Crime
(b) Torts
(c) Sale
(d) None of these

 {www.Mehnat.Pk}






PART – II



NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt only FOUR questions from PART II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.





Q.2 Explain the essentials of Valid Gift. A, who owns a house makes a gift to B of the house and of the right to the use a staircase used by him jointly with a owner of an adjoining house. Is it a valid Gift explain?

Q.3 A Muslim marriage is a civil contract. Do you think that the contracting parties have equal rights in rescinding a marriage contract? Give rationale.

Q.4 Under section 4 of the Muslim Family Laws ordinance an orphan grandchild in entitled to the share of his/her predeceased parent. Explain fully the issue; argue for or against the provision.

Q.5 A Muslim male dies leaving behind a widow, a daughter an agnatic granddaughter and a father. Distribute the property of the deceased/ praepositus amongst the heirs. Explain the basis for the distribution of property to each and every heir.

Q.6 What is ijtehad? What are the qualifications of a Mujtahid? Compare Ijtihad with istehsan.

Q.7 Explain fully the status of a bigamous marriage under the classical Islamic Law and compare it with Pakistani law.

Q.8 Write a comprehensive note on the Islamization of the laws in Pakistan. Do you think that islamization of laws has in any way improved the Judicial and Governance systems of the Country?

Posted at 3/20/2013 07:12:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Mercantile Law
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Select the correct answer:
(a) Promisee and Offeree are one and same party
(b) Offeree is a party who propose an agreement while promisee accepts it
(c) None of these

(ii) Every agreement forbidding marriage of any adult person is void except of a minor:
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Partly correct (d) None of these
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(iii) Can a contract executed in Saudi Arabia be enforced in courts in Pakistan?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) None of these

(iv) The effect of coercion on a contract is that the contract becomes:
(a) void (b) voidable (c) valid (d) None of these

(v) The members of partnership carrying out business of banking must not exceed:
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) None of these

(vi) The minimum number of members required for forming private company is:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) None of these

(vii) The minimum number of members required for forming public company is:
(a) 7 (b) 50 (c) 5 (d) None of these

(viii) After its incorporation, the ordinary General Meeting of a company must be held within:
(a) One year (b) the year of incorporation
(c) Eighteen months from the date of incorporation (d) None of these

(ix) What type of tax is referred to in the sale of Goods Act, 1930?
(a) Income tax (b) Wealth tax (c) Customs duty
(d) Sales tax (e) None of these

(x) The carrier holds the goods in transit as:
(a) Trustee (b) Agent (c) Bailee (d) None of these


(xi) For how much days, a promissory note is entitled to days of grace to be at maturity when it is not
expressed to be either payable on demand or otherwise?
(a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 3 days (d) None of these

(xii) A promissory note is at maturity on Sunday, being public holiday. Whether such promissory note will be deemed to be due on: (a) the next preceding business day (b) The next succeeding business day (c) None of these

(xiii) Can a minor become a payee of a negotiable instrument?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Not himself but his guardian

(xiv) Life Insurance Policy cannot be called in question by an insurer on the ground of inaccurate or false immaterial statement made in the proposal for insurance after:
(a) one year (b) two years (c) three years (d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xv) Willfully making statement false in any document required under Insurance Act. 1938, shall be punishable with imprisonment upto:
(a) five years (b) four years (c) three years
(d) fine only (e) None of these

(xvi) Whether a minor can be appointed as nominee to Life Insurance Policy?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) His guardian only (d) None of these

(xvii) Caveat emptor:
(a) is a person who institutes pre-emption suit
(b) is seller who discloses defects in the goods being sold
(c) is the buyer who is supposed to be aware of the suitability of the goods (d) is owner of an empty cave (e) None of these

(xviii) Penalty provided for driving uninsured vehicle is:
(a) imprisonment upto 5 years and fine upto Rs. 1000/- or both
(b) imprisonment upto 1 year and fine upto Rs. 100/- or both
(c) Imprisonment upto 3 months or fine upto Rs. 500/- or with both
(d) fine upto Rs. 10000/- only
(e) none of these

xix) Can a compoundable criminal case be referred to arbitration?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) None of these as only civil matters can be referred to

xx) Within how much period, the arbitrators are legally required to make their award after entering on the reference?

(a) one month (b) two months (c) three months
(d) four months (e) None of these


PART - II

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

NOTE:
(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. a) All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts. Please justify. (10)

b) Give five examples of such agreements which are declared to be void under the contract Act, 1872. ' (10)

Q.3 a) When will consent of a party to a contract be deemed to have been caused by coercion? (10)

b) Whether threat to commit suicide by. husband will amount to coercion against wife in a contract between them? Comment. (10)

Q.4 a) A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad. What type of contract it becomes? (10)

b) (i) Can A, who is pleader, recover fee from his client B, when there was no express agreement as to the remuneration for the services rendered? Justify your reply. (5)
(ii) A, gratuitously saves B's property from fire. Is A entitled to any compensation for it from
B? (5)

Q.5 a) Jewellery was pledged with a money lender as security. The lender gave it to his wife
for putting it on a marriage. While returning from the ceremony, she was attacked by dacoits
and robbed of it. Was the money lender liable for making good the loss to the loanee after such
incident? Comment. (10)

b) What are the rights of the Pawnee in respect of the thing pledged? (10)

Q.6 What statutory restrictions are imposed on the alteration of articles of association of a company? (20)


Q.7 a) What remedies are available to a buyer when the seller delivers him goods less than/or more than the quantity contracted? (10)

b) A purchased a pole for his carriage from B, While A was driving the pole due to a latent defect, broke and the horses got frightened and injured. Is any remedy available to A in such a case? Comment" (10)


Q.8 a) In what cases, a party to the arbitration agreement may appoint his own appointed arbitrator to act as sole arbitrator in the reference? (10)

b) Define the following: (10)
(i) Drawee (ii) Payee (iii) Accommodation Bills (iv) Blank instrument (v) Cross cheque

 

CSS Exam Mercantile Law 2009 Group-F Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Mercantile Law
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Select the correct answer:
(a) Promisee and Offeree are one and same party
(b) Offeree is a party who propose an agreement while promisee accepts it
(c) None of these

(ii) Every agreement forbidding marriage of any adult person is void except of a minor:
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Partly correct (d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(iii) Can a contract executed in Saudi Arabia be enforced in courts in Pakistan?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) None of these

(iv) The effect of coercion on a contract is that the contract becomes:
(a) void (b) voidable (c) valid (d) None of these

(v) The members of partnership carrying out business of banking must not exceed:
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) None of these

(vi) The minimum number of members required for forming private company is:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) None of these

(vii) The minimum number of members required for forming public company is:
(a) 7 (b) 50 (c) 5 (d) None of these

(viii) After its incorporation, the ordinary General Meeting of a company must be held within:
(a) One year (b) the year of incorporation
(c) Eighteen months from the date of incorporation (d) None of these

(ix) What type of tax is referred to in the sale of Goods Act, 1930?
(a) Income tax (b) Wealth tax (c) Customs duty
(d) Sales tax (e) None of these

(x) The carrier holds the goods in transit as:
(a) Trustee (b) Agent (c) Bailee (d) None of these


(xi) For how much days, a promissory note is entitled to days of grace to be at maturity when it is not
expressed to be either payable on demand or otherwise?
(a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 3 days (d) None of these

(xii) A promissory note is at maturity on Sunday, being public holiday. Whether such promissory note will be deemed to be due on: (a) the next preceding business day (b) The next succeeding business day (c) None of these

(xiii) Can a minor become a payee of a negotiable instrument?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Not himself but his guardian

(xiv) Life Insurance Policy cannot be called in question by an insurer on the ground of inaccurate or false immaterial statement made in the proposal for insurance after:
(a) one year (b) two years (c) three years (d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xv) Willfully making statement false in any document required under Insurance Act. 1938, shall be punishable with imprisonment upto:
(a) five years (b) four years (c) three years
(d) fine only (e) None of these

(xvi) Whether a minor can be appointed as nominee to Life Insurance Policy?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) His guardian only (d) None of these

(xvii) Caveat emptor:
(a) is a person who institutes pre-emption suit
(b) is seller who discloses defects in the goods being sold
(c) is the buyer who is supposed to be aware of the suitability of the goods (d) is owner of an empty cave (e) None of these

(xviii) Penalty provided for driving uninsured vehicle is:
(a) imprisonment upto 5 years and fine upto Rs. 1000/- or both
(b) imprisonment upto 1 year and fine upto Rs. 100/- or both
(c) Imprisonment upto 3 months or fine upto Rs. 500/- or with both
(d) fine upto Rs. 10000/- only
(e) none of these

xix) Can a compoundable criminal case be referred to arbitration?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) None of these as only civil matters can be referred to

xx) Within how much period, the arbitrators are legally required to make their award after entering on the reference?

(a) one month (b) two months (c) three months
(d) four months (e) None of these


PART - II

{www.Mehnat.Pk}

NOTE:
(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. a) All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts. Please justify. (10)

b) Give five examples of such agreements which are declared to be void under the contract Act, 1872. ' (10)

Q.3 a) When will consent of a party to a contract be deemed to have been caused by coercion? (10)

b) Whether threat to commit suicide by. husband will amount to coercion against wife in a contract between them? Comment. (10)

Q.4 a) A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad. What type of contract it becomes? (10)

b) (i) Can A, who is pleader, recover fee from his client B, when there was no express agreement as to the remuneration for the services rendered? Justify your reply. (5)
(ii) A, gratuitously saves B's property from fire. Is A entitled to any compensation for it from
B? (5)

Q.5 a) Jewellery was pledged with a money lender as security. The lender gave it to his wife
for putting it on a marriage. While returning from the ceremony, she was attacked by dacoits
and robbed of it. Was the money lender liable for making good the loss to the loanee after such
incident? Comment. (10)

b) What are the rights of the Pawnee in respect of the thing pledged? (10)

Q.6 What statutory restrictions are imposed on the alteration of articles of association of a company? (20)


Q.7 a) What remedies are available to a buyer when the seller delivers him goods less than/or more than the quantity contracted? (10)

b) A purchased a pole for his carriage from B, While A was driving the pole due to a latent defect, broke and the horses got frightened and injured. Is any remedy available to A in such a case? Comment" (10)


Q.8 a) In what cases, a party to the arbitration agreement may appoint his own appointed arbitrator to act as sole arbitrator in the reference? (10)

b) Define the following: (10)
(i) Drawee (ii) Payee (iii) Accommodation Bills (iv) Blank instrument (v) Cross cheque

 

Posted at 3/20/2013 07:09:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Law Paper I
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) “Mesne Profits” of property means the profits:
(a) received by a mortgagee from the mortgaged property
(b) received by the person in wrongful possession from the property wrongfully possessed by him
(c) received by a bailee during the period the property was in his possession under the contract of bailment
(d) None of these

(ii) A suit for the recovery of an immovable property should be filed in the court within local limits of whose jurisdiction the:
(a) plaintiff resides
(b) cause of action has arisen
(c) defendant resides
(d) None of these
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(iii) A filed a suit against B for the recovery of price of the cow he sold to B. In reaction to such suit B filed a suit against A for the recovery of the price of the cow he paid to A. The B’s suit can be termed as:
(a) Interpleader suit
(b) Counter Claim
(c) Set-off
(d) None of these

(iv) A minor can sue through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these

(v) Which of the following modes of execution of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is not lawful:
(a) attachment of immovable property
(b) attachment movable property
(c) forcibly taking the wife to her husband’s house
(d) None of these

(vi) A suit for compensation for wrongs to movable property should be filed in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
(a) the wrong was done
(b) the defendant resides
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A minor can be sued through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these
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(viii) Jamal, a 17 years old millionaire and thus a minor under the law, agrees to buy Bilal’s house for “a reasonable price.” They reduce the agreement to writing and both sign. Bilal and Jamal have:
(a) a valid contract
(b) a voidable contract
(c) no contract
(d) None of these

(ix) Salim, a 14 years old, offers to cut Shahid’s grass for Rs.400/-. Shahid replies “If you include some hedge trimming I accept.” Salim walks away. Shahid then says, “never mind, I accept for Rs.400/-.” Salim keeps walking. There is:
(a) an oral contract at Rs. 400/-
(b) a voidable contract
(c) an offer from Shahid
(d) None of these

(x) Salman states to Jamal who is only 16 years old “I would not sell my car for less than Rs.5,000/-.” Jamal says, “I accept.” Under the Contract Act:
(a) there is an offer and acceptance and thus a valid contract
(b) the contract is voidable on the option of Jamal
(c) there is no contract
(d) None of these

(xi) Noman offers to sell his car to Sardar for Rs.200,000/-. Sardar says “Is that negotiable?” Noman says “No.” Sardar then says, “Well, I’ll take it for Rs. 200,000/-.” What has happened?
(a) Sardar has accepted Noman’s offer
(b) Sardar has made a new offer
(c) Sardar has rejected Noman’s offer under the mirror image rule
(d) None of these

(xii) A and B are negotiating over the price of a used car. A tells B that he can purchased the car for Rs.400,000/-. B tells A that “I agree if you replace the tyres.” Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) B’s acceptance is qualified and incomplete
(b) B has made a counter offer
(c) B has made A conditional acceptance
(d) None of these

(xiii) When an offer can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom the offer is made, is characteristic of:
(a) bilateral contracts
(b) quasi contracts
(c) implied contracts
(d) None of these
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(xiv) Kala Khan offers to sell Baboo Bashir his motorcycle at some time in the future. Baboo Bashir accepts. Is there a valid contract?
(a) probably not, the terms are not definite
(b) Probably so
(c) definitely not because the acceptance was invalid
(d) None of these

(xv) In a tort which is actionable per se the plaintiff has to prove:
(a) the commission of the tortous act as well as resulting damage
(b) the commission of the tortous act only
(c) the commission of the tortous act resulting damage and ill-well on the part of the defendant
(d) None of these

(xvi) Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) damage without infringement of a legal right
(b) Infringement of a legal right only
(c) Infringement of a legal right without any damage
(d) None of these

(xvii) Publication of a verbal defamatory statement necessitates that it should have been:
(a) repeated in a gathering of 10%
(b) published in a national news paper
(c) known to a third person
(d) None of these

(xviii) Under the rule of Vicarious Liability:
(a) a company is liable for the wrongful acts of its directors
(b) only a master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(c) both A & B
(d) None of these

(xix) Which of the following is not a remedy in an action for tort?
(a) Injunction
(b) fine
(c) damage
(d) None of these
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(xx) A right in personum is the right which is?
(a) available against the world at large
(b) not available against a particular individual
(c) not the creation of a contract
(d) None of these

PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I (The Code of Civil Procedure)

Q.2. In which of the following circumstances a High Court cannot call for the record of a case for Revision, which has been decided by a subordinate court? (16)
(a) Where the subordinate court has failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it?
(b) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it?
(c) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it and one of the parties to that case who has a right of appeal has failed to prefer an appeal?
(d) Where the subordinate court has acted in the exercise of a jurisdiction vested in it illegally are with material irregularity?
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the
relevant principal of law.

Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between res judicata and unilateral res-subjudice by giving examples. (16)

Q.4. Which of the following of a ground for appeal to the High Court from a decree passed in appeal by a District Court? (16)
(a) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Civil Court Ordinance (II of 1962);
(b) the District Court having exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it;
(c) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Code of Civil Procedure (V of 1908);
(d) All of the above.
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law.

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SECTION – II (The Contract Act)


Q.5. One evening while shifting through your “junk mail”, you see an advertisement in a catalogue distributed by the local computer store advertising a pocket PC that you wish to buy. The PC usually sells for Rs.30,000/-, but the catalogue price is Rs.20,000/-. Next morning you go to the store with Rs.20,000/- to buy the PC, where you are told that the price in the catalogue is wrong, but you can buy it for Rs.30,000/-. Can not you insist to buy the PC for Rs.20,000/-? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)

Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between bilateral and unilateral contract by giving examples. (16)

Q.7. At a meeting of coin collectors, Sulman offers his entire coin collection to Bilal for Rs.25,000/-. Bilal, a more wise collector than Salman, knows that the collection is really worth about Rs.40,000/-. The next day, Bilal posts a letter to Salman accepting the offer, enclosing a Bank cheque for Rs.25,000/-. That evening, Bilal received a phone call from Sulman, saying that the offer to sell the collection for Rs.25,000/- was withdrawn. Bilal replied “You cannot revoke your offer! I have already accepted it. I
posted you a Bank cheque Rs.25,000/- at 2 o’clock this afternoon.” Salman then told Bilal that he had already sold the collection to another collector for Rs.30,000/-. Can Bilal sue Slaman? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)



SECTION – III (Law of Torts)


Q.8. The “Sach Khabrain” is a programme of political comment and news produced by National Cables, a private television company that broadcasts weekly. Last week’s programme included a feature on Raja Farman an MPA of Lunda Mastan, a rural constituency in the west of Punjab. The feature
consisted of a short ‘news-item’ read by a presenter as follows:
“And now startling news of Raja Farman MPA! Lunda Mastan police have confirmed that they have interviewed Raja Farman in connection with allegations of un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm. Raja Farman was last night unavailable for comment”
Global Cables have now received a letter from Raja Farman’s lawyer stating that he intends to bring an action for defamation. The letter points out that while the police had indeed interviewed Raja Farman in connection with an un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm, the subject of the investigation had been one of Raja Farman’s employees, not the MPA himself, and no charges had been brought. Advise those responsible for the broadcast. (16)

Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between torts actionable per se and torts which are not actionable per se by giving examples? (16)
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Q.10. Dildar is trying to sell mobile phones and offers a free gift for those who attend his presentations. Shamshad and Noshad decide to go to attend the presentation. The invitation to the show states that ‘all guests are respectfully required to remain in the seminar room for the entire presentation’. Half way through the show Shamshad tries to leave the room but is told that he cannot leave until the end. Noshad is happy with the show but is offended when he later learns that he could not have left if he
had wanted to.

Meanwhile Dildar jokingly slaps Shamshad on the shoulder telling him that he really will enjoy himself if he stays. Shamshad calls Dildar a corrupt cheat and laughs towards him. Dildar retaliates by hitting Shamshad and then locking him in a storeroom until the end of the show.

On being released Shamshad grabs his free gift (which has his name on it) but Dildar grabs it back saying that Shamshad cannot have it until he apologizes.

Discuss the liabilities of Dildar and Shamshad










FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Law Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)

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Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



(i) Non-Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(ii) A Justice of Peace appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure (V of 1898) for the purpose of making an arrest has the power of:
(a) a Magistrate
(b) a Judicial Magistrate
(c) a Police Officer
(d) None of these

(iii) A Magistrate First Class can tray:
(a) all offences punishable with death
(b) all offences not punishable with death
(c) all offences punishable with imprisonment of 6 montths
(d) None of these

(iv) A police officer is bound to bring a person arrested by him before the court:
(a) within 24 hours
(b) within 36 hours
(c) as soon as possible
(d) None of these

(v) A person convicted on a trial held by an Additional Sessions Judge may appeal to:
(a) the Sessions Judge
(b) the High Court
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) None of these

(vi) After a charge has been framed against an accused person, he may be:
(a) discharged
(b) acquitted
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(viii) A was driving at a normal speed on a highway. Suddenly a child ran before his car to cross the road. A could not stopped and, consequently, the boy was killed. He should be prosecuted for:
(a) Murder
(b) Negligence
(c) Culpable Homicide
(d) None of these

(ix) A saw an armed person entering his house in the mid-night who abruptly opened fire on A. A also opened fire on him and killed him. He has committed:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable Homicide
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these

(x) An anonymous person informed A, a very wealthy smuggler of wheat, on telephone that his minor son was in his custody and if A does not donate Rs.500,000/- to the local “sateemkhana” he would break his son’s legs. The caller committed which of the following offence:
(a) no offence
(b) Kidnap
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these

(xi) When five or more persons, by fighting in a football ground, disturb the public peace, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Unlawful Assembly
(d) None of these

(xii) When five or more persons armed with deadly weapons, enter some ones house, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Criminal Trespass
(d) None of these
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(xiii) A private person may arrest another person, who in his view has committed a:
(a) non-bailable offence
(b) cognizable offence
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

(xiv) A warrant of arrest must be issued by:
(a) an A.S.P. of Police
(b) the Home Secretary
(c) the presiding judge of the court issuing the warrant
(d) None of these

(xv) A lunatic who is not prevented by his lunacy from understanding the questions put to him is:
(a) a competent witness
(b) is not a competent witness
(c) is not a competent witness if has not attained the age of majority
(d) None of these

(xvi) A person who has been convicted for perjury is:
(a) is not a competent if has not attained the age of majority
(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness provided the court is satisfied that he had repented and mended his ways
(d) None of these

(xvii) In which of the following an accomplice is not a competent witness:
(a) offences punishable with death
(b) offences punishable with hadd
(c) offences punishable with confiscation of property
(d) None of these

(xviii) In criminal cases previous good character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant if proved with oath
(d) None of these

(xix) In criminal cases previous bad character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant only when accused provides evidence of his good character
(d) None of these

(xx) The contents of a document may be proved?
(a) only by primary evidence
(b) by primary as well as secondary evidence
(c) only by secondary evidence
(d) None of these
PART – II
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(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I (Qanun-e-Shahadat Order)

Q.2. Imam Bakhsh against whom a trial for theft was going on once went to the mosque of the local Police line for reading zuhar prayer. The imam of the mosque, Rahmat Ullah Shah, was a very kind and pious person. Imam Bakhsh while talking to the imam sahib confessed that he had committed the theft. Is the confession relevant? Why or why not? Discuss in details: (16)

Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between Admission and unilateral confession by giving examples. (16)

Q.4. Briefly state the cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given. (16)



SECTION – II (Code of Criminal Procedure)


Q.5. A, an accused of murder, was convicted to death sentence by a Session Judge. When the judgment of the Session Judge was submitted to the High Court for confirmation the High Court annulled the judgment of the Session Judge and sentenced the accused to 14 years rigorous imprisonment. Is the High Court empowered to do so? Why or why not? Discuss in details by referring to the relevant provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure. (16)

Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between F.I.R. and Complaint by giving examples. (16)

Q.7. Suppose you are a Session Judge, who has sentenced an accused person to the death sentence. The death sentenced has been got confirmed by the High Court and the warrant of the execution of the sentence has properly been issued. One day before the execution of the sentence the family of the accused as well as of the deceased person file an application in your court informing that they have entered a compromise and they request that the death sentence should be annulled. Are you, as a Session Judge empowered to annul the sentence? Why or why not? Discuss in detail byreferring to the relevant provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure. (16)




SECTION – III (Pakistan Penal Code)


Q.8. Salamat Khan, who was invited by his close friend, Sharafat Khan to a dinner had about three glasses of lasi. Just to play a joke with Salamat Khan his friend Sharafat Khan had secretly mixed in the lasi some locally made wine. In result of drinking that lasi Salamat Khan was fully under the effect of that intoxicant. While he was walking back to his locality late in night he severely needed some cigarettes but unfortunately the shops were closed. In the way he found a super store and he expected to find some cigarettes there. Since it was late in night and there was no body around, therefore, he smashed the window and picked a box of Gold Leaf. But unfortunately while he was getting out of the store a police patrol party arrested him. Salamat Khan has committed: (16)
(a) Trespass only.
(b) Theft plus Trespass
(c) Decoity only
(d) No offence
Which of the above statement is correct support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law.

Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between Wrongful Restraint and Wrongful Confinement and by giving examples. (16)

Q.10.A, who was in a severe need of money, waited in an alley until another person, B walked by on the street. Then, stepping out of the alley, he stuck his hand in his pocket with his finger thrust forward and said, “I’ve got a gun in this pocket.” Snatching B’s purse with his other hand, he ran away because B thought that he had a gun, he did not attempt to stop him. Select the offence of which A is most likely to be properly convicted. (16)
(a) Cheating
(b) Decoity
(c) Robbery
(d) Extortion
Which of the above statement is correct support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law

 

CSS Exam Law 2009 Group-F Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Law Paper I
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TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) “Mesne Profits” of property means the profits:
(a) received by a mortgagee from the mortgaged property
(b) received by the person in wrongful possession from the property wrongfully possessed by him
(c) received by a bailee during the period the property was in his possession under the contract of bailment
(d) None of these

(ii) A suit for the recovery of an immovable property should be filed in the court within local limits of whose jurisdiction the:
(a) plaintiff resides
(b) cause of action has arisen
(c) defendant resides
(d) None of these
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(iii) A filed a suit against B for the recovery of price of the cow he sold to B. In reaction to such suit B filed a suit against A for the recovery of the price of the cow he paid to A. The B’s suit can be termed as:
(a) Interpleader suit
(b) Counter Claim
(c) Set-off
(d) None of these

(iv) A minor can sue through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these

(v) Which of the following modes of execution of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is not lawful:
(a) attachment of immovable property
(b) attachment movable property
(c) forcibly taking the wife to her husband’s house
(d) None of these

(vi) A suit for compensation for wrongs to movable property should be filed in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
(a) the wrong was done
(b) the defendant resides
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A minor can be sued through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these
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(viii) Jamal, a 17 years old millionaire and thus a minor under the law, agrees to buy Bilal’s house for “a reasonable price.” They reduce the agreement to writing and both sign. Bilal and Jamal have:
(a) a valid contract
(b) a voidable contract
(c) no contract
(d) None of these

(ix) Salim, a 14 years old, offers to cut Shahid’s grass for Rs.400/-. Shahid replies “If you include some hedge trimming I accept.” Salim walks away. Shahid then says, “never mind, I accept for Rs.400/-.” Salim keeps walking. There is:
(a) an oral contract at Rs. 400/-
(b) a voidable contract
(c) an offer from Shahid
(d) None of these

(x) Salman states to Jamal who is only 16 years old “I would not sell my car for less than Rs.5,000/-.” Jamal says, “I accept.” Under the Contract Act:
(a) there is an offer and acceptance and thus a valid contract
(b) the contract is voidable on the option of Jamal
(c) there is no contract
(d) None of these

(xi) Noman offers to sell his car to Sardar for Rs.200,000/-. Sardar says “Is that negotiable?” Noman says “No.” Sardar then says, “Well, I’ll take it for Rs. 200,000/-.” What has happened?
(a) Sardar has accepted Noman’s offer
(b) Sardar has made a new offer
(c) Sardar has rejected Noman’s offer under the mirror image rule
(d) None of these

(xii) A and B are negotiating over the price of a used car. A tells B that he can purchased the car for Rs.400,000/-. B tells A that “I agree if you replace the tyres.” Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) B’s acceptance is qualified and incomplete
(b) B has made a counter offer
(c) B has made A conditional acceptance
(d) None of these

(xiii) When an offer can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom the offer is made, is characteristic of:
(a) bilateral contracts
(b) quasi contracts
(c) implied contracts
(d) None of these
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(xiv) Kala Khan offers to sell Baboo Bashir his motorcycle at some time in the future. Baboo Bashir accepts. Is there a valid contract?
(a) probably not, the terms are not definite
(b) Probably so
(c) definitely not because the acceptance was invalid
(d) None of these

(xv) In a tort which is actionable per se the plaintiff has to prove:
(a) the commission of the tortous act as well as resulting damage
(b) the commission of the tortous act only
(c) the commission of the tortous act resulting damage and ill-well on the part of the defendant
(d) None of these

(xvi) Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) damage without infringement of a legal right
(b) Infringement of a legal right only
(c) Infringement of a legal right without any damage
(d) None of these

(xvii) Publication of a verbal defamatory statement necessitates that it should have been:
(a) repeated in a gathering of 10%
(b) published in a national news paper
(c) known to a third person
(d) None of these

(xviii) Under the rule of Vicarious Liability:
(a) a company is liable for the wrongful acts of its directors
(b) only a master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(c) both A & B
(d) None of these

(xix) Which of the following is not a remedy in an action for tort?
(a) Injunction
(b) fine
(c) damage
(d) None of these
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(xx) A right in personum is the right which is?
(a) available against the world at large
(b) not available against a particular individual
(c) not the creation of a contract
(d) None of these

PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I (The Code of Civil Procedure)

Q.2. In which of the following circumstances a High Court cannot call for the record of a case for Revision, which has been decided by a subordinate court? (16)
(a) Where the subordinate court has failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it?
(b) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it?
(c) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it and one of the parties to that case who has a right of appeal has failed to prefer an appeal?
(d) Where the subordinate court has acted in the exercise of a jurisdiction vested in it illegally are with material irregularity?
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the
relevant principal of law.

Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between res judicata and unilateral res-subjudice by giving examples. (16)

Q.4. Which of the following of a ground for appeal to the High Court from a decree passed in appeal by a District Court? (16)
(a) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Civil Court Ordinance (II of 1962);
(b) the District Court having exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it;
(c) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Code of Civil Procedure (V of 1908);
(d) All of the above.
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law.

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SECTION – II (The Contract Act)


Q.5. One evening while shifting through your “junk mail”, you see an advertisement in a catalogue distributed by the local computer store advertising a pocket PC that you wish to buy. The PC usually sells for Rs.30,000/-, but the catalogue price is Rs.20,000/-. Next morning you go to the store with Rs.20,000/- to buy the PC, where you are told that the price in the catalogue is wrong, but you can buy it for Rs.30,000/-. Can not you insist to buy the PC for Rs.20,000/-? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)

Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between bilateral and unilateral contract by giving examples. (16)

Q.7. At a meeting of coin collectors, Sulman offers his entire coin collection to Bilal for Rs.25,000/-. Bilal, a more wise collector than Salman, knows that the collection is really worth about Rs.40,000/-. The next day, Bilal posts a letter to Salman accepting the offer, enclosing a Bank cheque for Rs.25,000/-. That evening, Bilal received a phone call from Sulman, saying that the offer to sell the collection for Rs.25,000/- was withdrawn. Bilal replied “You cannot revoke your offer! I have already accepted it. I
posted you a Bank cheque Rs.25,000/- at 2 o’clock this afternoon.” Salman then told Bilal that he had already sold the collection to another collector for Rs.30,000/-. Can Bilal sue Slaman? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)



SECTION – III (Law of Torts)


Q.8. The “Sach Khabrain” is a programme of political comment and news produced by National Cables, a private television company that broadcasts weekly. Last week’s programme included a feature on Raja Farman an MPA of Lunda Mastan, a rural constituency in the west of Punjab. The feature
consisted of a short ‘news-item’ read by a presenter as follows:
“And now startling news of Raja Farman MPA! Lunda Mastan police have confirmed that they have interviewed Raja Farman in connection with allegations of un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm. Raja Farman was last night unavailable for comment”
Global Cables have now received a letter from Raja Farman’s lawyer stating that he intends to bring an action for defamation. The letter points out that while the police had indeed interviewed Raja Farman in connection with an un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm, the subject of the investigation had been one of Raja Farman’s employees, not the MPA himself, and no charges had been brought. Advise those responsible for the broadcast. (16)

Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between torts actionable per se and torts which are not actionable per se by giving examples? (16)
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Q.10. Dildar is trying to sell mobile phones and offers a free gift for those who attend his presentations. Shamshad and Noshad decide to go to attend the presentation. The invitation to the show states that ‘all guests are respectfully required to remain in the seminar room for the entire presentation’. Half way through the show Shamshad tries to leave the room but is told that he cannot leave until the end. Noshad is happy with the show but is offended when he later learns that he could not have left if he
had wanted to.

Meanwhile Dildar jokingly slaps Shamshad on the shoulder telling him that he really will enjoy himself if he stays. Shamshad calls Dildar a corrupt cheat and laughs towards him. Dildar retaliates by hitting Shamshad and then locking him in a storeroom until the end of the show.

On being released Shamshad grabs his free gift (which has his name on it) but Dildar grabs it back saying that Shamshad cannot have it until he apologizes.

Discuss the liabilities of Dildar and Shamshad










FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Law Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)

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Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



(i) Non-Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(ii) A Justice of Peace appointed under the Code of Criminal Procedure (V of 1898) for the purpose of making an arrest has the power of:
(a) a Magistrate
(b) a Judicial Magistrate
(c) a Police Officer
(d) None of these

(iii) A Magistrate First Class can tray:
(a) all offences punishable with death
(b) all offences not punishable with death
(c) all offences punishable with imprisonment of 6 montths
(d) None of these

(iv) A police officer is bound to bring a person arrested by him before the court:
(a) within 24 hours
(b) within 36 hours
(c) as soon as possible
(d) None of these

(v) A person convicted on a trial held by an Additional Sessions Judge may appeal to:
(a) the Sessions Judge
(b) the High Court
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) None of these

(vi) After a charge has been framed against an accused person, he may be:
(a) discharged
(b) acquitted
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A Cognizable Offence is:
(a) an offence in which a police officer can arrest without warrant
(b) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(c) an offence in which a police officer cannot arrest an accused person
(d) None of these

(viii) A was driving at a normal speed on a highway. Suddenly a child ran before his car to cross the road. A could not stopped and, consequently, the boy was killed. He should be prosecuted for:
(a) Murder
(b) Negligence
(c) Culpable Homicide
(d) None of these

(ix) A saw an armed person entering his house in the mid-night who abruptly opened fire on A. A also opened fire on him and killed him. He has committed:
(a) Murder
(b) Culpable Homicide
(c) Negligence
(d) None of these

(x) An anonymous person informed A, a very wealthy smuggler of wheat, on telephone that his minor son was in his custody and if A does not donate Rs.500,000/- to the local “sateemkhana” he would break his son’s legs. The caller committed which of the following offence:
(a) no offence
(b) Kidnap
(c) Extortion
(d) None of these

(xi) When five or more persons, by fighting in a football ground, disturb the public peace, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Unlawful Assembly
(d) None of these

(xii) When five or more persons armed with deadly weapons, enter some ones house, they are said to commit the following offence:
(a) Affray
(b) Rioting
(c) Criminal Trespass
(d) None of these
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(xiii) A private person may arrest another person, who in his view has committed a:
(a) non-bailable offence
(b) cognizable offence
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

(xiv) A warrant of arrest must be issued by:
(a) an A.S.P. of Police
(b) the Home Secretary
(c) the presiding judge of the court issuing the warrant
(d) None of these

(xv) A lunatic who is not prevented by his lunacy from understanding the questions put to him is:
(a) a competent witness
(b) is not a competent witness
(c) is not a competent witness if has not attained the age of majority
(d) None of these

(xvi) A person who has been convicted for perjury is:
(a) is not a competent if has not attained the age of majority
(b) a competent witness
(c) a competent witness provided the court is satisfied that he had repented and mended his ways
(d) None of these

(xvii) In which of the following an accomplice is not a competent witness:
(a) offences punishable with death
(b) offences punishable with hadd
(c) offences punishable with confiscation of property
(d) None of these

(xviii) In criminal cases previous good character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant if proved with oath
(d) None of these

(xix) In criminal cases previous bad character is:
(a) irrelevant
(b) relevant
(c) relevant only when accused provides evidence of his good character
(d) None of these

(xx) The contents of a document may be proved?
(a) only by primary evidence
(b) by primary as well as secondary evidence
(c) only by secondary evidence
(d) None of these
PART – II
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



SECTION – I (Qanun-e-Shahadat Order)

Q.2. Imam Bakhsh against whom a trial for theft was going on once went to the mosque of the local Police line for reading zuhar prayer. The imam of the mosque, Rahmat Ullah Shah, was a very kind and pious person. Imam Bakhsh while talking to the imam sahib confessed that he had committed the theft. Is the confession relevant? Why or why not? Discuss in details: (16)

Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between Admission and unilateral confession by giving examples. (16)

Q.4. Briefly state the cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given. (16)



SECTION – II (Code of Criminal Procedure)


Q.5. A, an accused of murder, was convicted to death sentence by a Session Judge. When the judgment of the Session Judge was submitted to the High Court for confirmation the High Court annulled the judgment of the Session Judge and sentenced the accused to 14 years rigorous imprisonment. Is the High Court empowered to do so? Why or why not? Discuss in details by referring to the relevant provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure. (16)

Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between F.I.R. and Complaint by giving examples. (16)

Q.7. Suppose you are a Session Judge, who has sentenced an accused person to the death sentence. The death sentenced has been got confirmed by the High Court and the warrant of the execution of the sentence has properly been issued. One day before the execution of the sentence the family of the accused as well as of the deceased person file an application in your court informing that they have entered a compromise and they request that the death sentence should be annulled. Are you, as a Session Judge empowered to annul the sentence? Why or why not? Discuss in detail byreferring to the relevant provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure. (16)




SECTION – III (Pakistan Penal Code)


Q.8. Salamat Khan, who was invited by his close friend, Sharafat Khan to a dinner had about three glasses of lasi. Just to play a joke with Salamat Khan his friend Sharafat Khan had secretly mixed in the lasi some locally made wine. In result of drinking that lasi Salamat Khan was fully under the effect of that intoxicant. While he was walking back to his locality late in night he severely needed some cigarettes but unfortunately the shops were closed. In the way he found a super store and he expected to find some cigarettes there. Since it was late in night and there was no body around, therefore, he smashed the window and picked a box of Gold Leaf. But unfortunately while he was getting out of the store a police patrol party arrested him. Salamat Khan has committed: (16)
(a) Trespass only.
(b) Theft plus Trespass
(c) Decoity only
(d) No offence
Which of the above statement is correct support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law.

Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between Wrongful Restraint and Wrongful Confinement and by giving examples. (16)

Q.10.A, who was in a severe need of money, waited in an alley until another person, B walked by on the street. Then, stepping out of the alley, he stuck his hand in his pocket with his finger thrust forward and said, “I’ve got a gun in this pocket.” Snatching B’s purse with his other hand, he ran away because B thought that he had a gun, he did not attempt to stop him. Select the offence of which A is most likely to be properly convicted. (16)
(a) Cheating
(b) Decoity
(c) Robbery
(d) Extortion
Which of the above statement is correct support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law

 

Posted at 3/20/2013 07:03:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

International Relations
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Sarah Palin is the governor of:

(a) New York
(b) Alaska
(c) Illinois
(d) None of these

(ii) President De Gaulle withdrew France from NATO in:

(a) 1966
(b) 1950
(c) 1962
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(iii) Pearl Harbor, USA, naval base in Hawain Islands, during WWII was attacked by:

(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Cuba
(d) None of these

(iv) According to Brandt Report, 'The South consists of:

(a) Third world countries
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) None of these

(v) In 1933 Hitler signed an agreement with pope known as:

(a) Brandeus
(b) Concordat
(c) Peace Pact
(d) None of these

(vi) The current president of Russia is:

(a) Vladimir Putin
(b) Nicolas Sarkozy
(c) Dmitry Medvedev
(d) None of these

(vii) North Korea invaded South Korea in:

(a) 1948
(b) 1950
(c) 1959
(d) None of these

(viii) Indian Congress came into power under the leadership of Sonia Gandhi in:

(a) 2000
(b) 2004
(c) 2006
(d) None of these

(ix) The UN charter in 1945 was drawn up in:
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(a) New York
(b) San Francisco
(c) Washington
(d) None of these

(x) Owen Young, who gave the young plan was:

(a) an American banker
(b) German President
(c) British Ambassador
(d) None of these

(xi) Windock is the capital of:

(a) Ziganda
(b) Namibia
(c) Luxembourg
(d) None of these


(xii) CENTO was dissolved in:

(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1998
(d) None of these

(xiii) The first Hague Conference was held in:

(a) 1890
(b) 1907
(c) 1914
(d) None of these (1899)

(xiv) NPT is not signed by:

(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Russia
(d) None of these

(xv) Afghanistan has vice-presidents:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) None
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xvi) Current Foreign Secretary of Pakistan is:

(a) Shah Mehmood Qureshi
(b) Salman Bashir
(c) Sherry Rehman
(d) None of these

(xvii) ASEAN summit 2008 took place in:

(a) Bangkok
(b) Malaysia
(c) Philippines
(d) None of these

(xviii) Faroe island is:

(a) a scandinavian state
(b) Darwin's birth place
(c) an American prison
(d) None of these

(xix) Ronald Reagan was a presidential candidate of:

(a) Republican
(b) Democrat
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(xx) " politics among nations" was written by:

(a) K.J. Holsti
(b) Gavin Boyd
(c) Hans.J.Margenthau
(d) None of these



PART – II


{www.Mehnat.Pk}
NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions form PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. Describe and discuss the concept of Nation-State and evaluate its future in the light of certain recent developments.

Q.3. Discuss the importance of International Relations as a field of study.

Q.4. Critically discuss the origin and developments of the cold war and its consequences on world politics.

Q.5. Economics realities compelled the members of the developing world to demand for the establishment of New International Economic Order. Give your comment.

Q.6. What factors were responsible for the creation of the WARSAW and NATO pacts? Can NATO's continuing existence be justified?

Q.7. Critically evaluate American foreign policy towards Pakistan.

Q.8. What is nuclear proliferation? How far the United states of America is justified in making a nuclear deal with India?

 

CSS Exam International Relations 2009 Group-F Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

International Relations
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Sarah Palin is the governor of:

(a) New York
(b) Alaska
(c) Illinois
(d) None of these

(ii) President De Gaulle withdrew France from NATO in:

(a) 1966
(b) 1950
(c) 1962
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(iii) Pearl Harbor, USA, naval base in Hawain Islands, during WWII was attacked by:

(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Cuba
(d) None of these

(iv) According to Brandt Report, 'The South consists of:

(a) Third world countries
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) None of these

(v) In 1933 Hitler signed an agreement with pope known as:

(a) Brandeus
(b) Concordat
(c) Peace Pact
(d) None of these

(vi) The current president of Russia is:

(a) Vladimir Putin
(b) Nicolas Sarkozy
(c) Dmitry Medvedev
(d) None of these

(vii) North Korea invaded South Korea in:

(a) 1948
(b) 1950
(c) 1959
(d) None of these

(viii) Indian Congress came into power under the leadership of Sonia Gandhi in:

(a) 2000
(b) 2004
(c) 2006
(d) None of these

(ix) The UN charter in 1945 was drawn up in:
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(a) New York
(b) San Francisco
(c) Washington
(d) None of these

(x) Owen Young, who gave the young plan was:

(a) an American banker
(b) German President
(c) British Ambassador
(d) None of these

(xi) Windock is the capital of:

(a) Ziganda
(b) Namibia
(c) Luxembourg
(d) None of these


(xii) CENTO was dissolved in:

(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1998
(d) None of these

(xiii) The first Hague Conference was held in:

(a) 1890
(b) 1907
(c) 1914
(d) None of these (1899)

(xiv) NPT is not signed by:

(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Russia
(d) None of these

(xv) Afghanistan has vice-presidents:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) None
(d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xvi) Current Foreign Secretary of Pakistan is:

(a) Shah Mehmood Qureshi
(b) Salman Bashir
(c) Sherry Rehman
(d) None of these

(xvii) ASEAN summit 2008 took place in:

(a) Bangkok
(b) Malaysia
(c) Philippines
(d) None of these

(xviii) Faroe island is:

(a) a scandinavian state
(b) Darwin's birth place
(c) an American prison
(d) None of these

(xix) Ronald Reagan was a presidential candidate of:

(a) Republican
(b) Democrat
(c) Both
(d) None of these

(xx) " politics among nations" was written by:

(a) K.J. Holsti
(b) Gavin Boyd
(c) Hans.J.Margenthau
(d) None of these



PART – II


{www.Mehnat.Pk}
NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions form PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. Describe and discuss the concept of Nation-State and evaluate its future in the light of certain recent developments.

Q.3. Discuss the importance of International Relations as a field of study.

Q.4. Critically discuss the origin and developments of the cold war and its consequences on world politics.

Q.5. Economics realities compelled the members of the developing world to demand for the establishment of New International Economic Order. Give your comment.

Q.6. What factors were responsible for the creation of the WARSAW and NATO pacts? Can NATO's continuing existence be justified?

Q.7. Critically evaluate American foreign policy towards Pakistan.

Q.8. What is nuclear proliferation? How far the United states of America is justified in making a nuclear deal with India?

 

Posted at 3/20/2013 04:10:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

Tuesday, 19 March 2013

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

International Law


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

1. One of the modes of acquiring state territory is:
(a) Jurisdicition (b) occupation (c) insurjency (d) Non of these

2. The name of the present secretary general of the UN is:
(a) Kofi Anaan (b) Boutros gali (c) Ban ke Mon (d) Non of these

3. The preamble to the universal declariation on human rights was adopted on:
(a) 12 jan 1949 (b) 10 Dec 1948 (c) 6th Aug 1947 (d) Non of these

4. The right of innocent passage means:
(a) right of a foreign merchant ship to pass un-hindered through the territorial sea of the cost
(b) Not to publicize dangers to navigation in the sea
(c) To over look regulations of marri-time traffic
(d) Non of these

5. The basic frame work for the nature and characteristics of treaties was defined in the:
(a) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1969
(b) Geneva connvention on the high seas 1958
(c) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1986
(d) Non of these

6. With drawal of recognition is more easily achieved with respect to:
(a) Defact recognition
(b) Collective Recognition
(c) Implied Recognition
(d) Non of these

7. The father of International Law is:
(a) David Dudley field
(b) Hugo Grotius
(c) Geremy bentham
(d) Non of these

8. Internal waters of a state are, such waters which are:
(a) found on the land-ward side of base line from which the territorial sea is measured.
(b) Adjusant to the exculsive fisheries zone.
(c) waters flowing into the high sea's
(d) Non of these

9. The doctrine of open sea was eloborated by:
(a) Blunt schilli
(b) Pufendorf
(c) Grotius
(d) Non of these

10. According to article 3 of the 1982 convention on the law of the sea the breadth of the territorial sea is:
(a) 10 miles
(b) 12 miles
(c) 14 miles
(d) Non of these

11. The term Men of War signifies:
(a) Military personal
(b) A warship
(c) An aircraft carrier
(d) Non of these

12. The number of judges constituting the international court of justice are:
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) Non of these

13. Terra Nullius means:
(a) Island in the sea
(b) No territory
(c) Territory belonging to no state
(d) Non of these

14. The Acroniyum WMD stands for:
(a) Western missile defense
(b) Weapons of mass distruction(c) World metrological Department
(d) Non of these

15. Hot persuit is the principle designed to ensure:
(a) Vessiles voilating rules of coastal state cannot escape punishment by fleeing to high sea's
(b) Capture
(c) Cancellation of Registration
(d) Non of these

16. Piracy, according to law of sea convention 1982 is:
(a) An illegal act by crew of private ship on the high sea's.
(b) An act of sabotage
(c) Act permisible in certain cases
(d) Non of these

17. The general assembly of the UN is :
(a) The most powerful organ
(b) A supervisory body
(c) An elected House
(d) Non of these

18. The charter of the UN is a comprehensive document having:
(a) 112 articles
(b) 111 articles
(c) 108 articles
(d) Non of these

19. One of the amicable means of settling state disputes is:
(a) Concillation
(b) Blockade
(c) War
(d) Non of these

20. The bulk of the rules of International law are derived from:
(a) Judicial decisions
(b) work of publicites
(c) Customs
(d) Non of these






PART – II



NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt only FOUR questions from PART II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.





Q.2 Define International personality and discuss various entities as International Legal person.

Q.3 How far do you think that International Law is based on common consent of States? Evaluate importance of customary law and treaty law as binding in this regard

Q.4 Territory is undoubtedly the basic character of a state as well as widely accepted elaborate with reference to exclusive rights of states on Land and Air territory.

Q.5 How far has the United Nation succeeded in developing a comprehensive system of Human Rights protection? Can emphasis on social justice and Human rights lead to a stable International Order?

Q.6 Define State jurisdiction and explain how domestic jurisdiction can be limited by and reduced by principles of International Law?

Q.7 keeping in view the objectives of the charter seeking to establish a mechanism of peace and security how far has United Nations succeeded in confronting changes in Global society?

Q.8 Describe Importance of diplomacy in interstate relations and discuss the concept of diplomacy and immunity?

CSS Exam International Law 2009 Group-F Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

International Law


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

1. One of the modes of acquiring state territory is:
(a) Jurisdicition (b) occupation (c) insurjency (d) Non of these

2. The name of the present secretary general of the UN is:
(a) Kofi Anaan (b) Boutros gali (c) Ban ke Mon (d) Non of these

3. The preamble to the universal declariation on human rights was adopted on:
(a) 12 jan 1949 (b) 10 Dec 1948 (c) 6th Aug 1947 (d) Non of these

4. The right of innocent passage means:
(a) right of a foreign merchant ship to pass un-hindered through the territorial sea of the cost
(b) Not to publicize dangers to navigation in the sea
(c) To over look regulations of marri-time traffic
(d) Non of these

5. The basic frame work for the nature and characteristics of treaties was defined in the:
(a) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1969
(b) Geneva connvention on the high seas 1958
(c) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1986
(d) Non of these

6. With drawal of recognition is more easily achieved with respect to:
(a) Defact recognition
(b) Collective Recognition
(c) Implied Recognition
(d) Non of these

7. The father of International Law is:
(a) David Dudley field
(b) Hugo Grotius
(c) Geremy bentham
(d) Non of these

8. Internal waters of a state are, such waters which are:
(a) found on the land-ward side of base line from which the territorial sea is measured.
(b) Adjusant to the exculsive fisheries zone.
(c) waters flowing into the high sea's
(d) Non of these

9. The doctrine of open sea was eloborated by:
(a) Blunt schilli
(b) Pufendorf
(c) Grotius
(d) Non of these

10. According to article 3 of the 1982 convention on the law of the sea the breadth of the territorial sea is:
(a) 10 miles
(b) 12 miles
(c) 14 miles
(d) Non of these

11. The term Men of War signifies:
(a) Military personal
(b) A warship
(c) An aircraft carrier
(d) Non of these

12. The number of judges constituting the international court of justice are:
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) Non of these

13. Terra Nullius means:
(a) Island in the sea
(b) No territory
(c) Territory belonging to no state
(d) Non of these

14. The Acroniyum WMD stands for:
(a) Western missile defense
(b) Weapons of mass distruction(c) World metrological Department
(d) Non of these

15. Hot persuit is the principle designed to ensure:
(a) Vessiles voilating rules of coastal state cannot escape punishment by fleeing to high sea's
(b) Capture
(c) Cancellation of Registration
(d) Non of these

16. Piracy, according to law of sea convention 1982 is:
(a) An illegal act by crew of private ship on the high sea's.
(b) An act of sabotage
(c) Act permisible in certain cases
(d) Non of these

17. The general assembly of the UN is :
(a) The most powerful organ
(b) A supervisory body
(c) An elected House
(d) Non of these

18. The charter of the UN is a comprehensive document having:
(a) 112 articles
(b) 111 articles
(c) 108 articles
(d) Non of these

19. One of the amicable means of settling state disputes is:
(a) Concillation
(b) Blockade
(c) War
(d) Non of these

20. The bulk of the rules of International law are derived from:
(a) Judicial decisions
(b) work of publicites
(c) Customs
(d) Non of these






PART – II



NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt only FOUR questions from PART II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.





Q.2 Define International personality and discuss various entities as International Legal person.

Q.3 How far do you think that International Law is based on common consent of States? Evaluate importance of customary law and treaty law as binding in this regard

Q.4 Territory is undoubtedly the basic character of a state as well as widely accepted elaborate with reference to exclusive rights of states on Land and Air territory.

Q.5 How far has the United Nation succeeded in developing a comprehensive system of Human Rights protection? Can emphasis on social justice and Human rights lead to a stable International Order?

Q.6 Define State jurisdiction and explain how domestic jurisdiction can be limited by and reduced by principles of International Law?

Q.7 keeping in view the objectives of the charter seeking to establish a mechanism of peace and security how far has United Nations succeeded in confronting changes in Global society?

Q.8 Describe Importance of diplomacy in interstate relations and discuss the concept of diplomacy and immunity?

Posted at 3/19/2013 07:00:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Constitutional Law


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) What is the constitutional title used for the British head of State?

(a)Prime Minister
(b) Crown
(c) Monarch
(d) None of these

(ii) Parliamentary system of UK is the product of:

(a) Rule of Law
(b) Conventions
(c) Prerogations of crown
(d) None of these

(iii) Which Act of parliaments protects the Independence of judiciary in UK?

(a) Bill of Rights
(b) Magna Carta
(c) Act of Settlement
(d) None of these

(iv) The office of the British Prime Minister is the creature of:

(a) Customs
(b) Precedent
(c) Act of Parliament
(d) None of these

(v) The English Common Law is based on:

(a) Statute Law
(b) Precedents
(c) Conventions
(d) None of these

(vi) How many US Presidents actually faced impeachment?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of these

(vii) The Bill of Rights became part of US constitution in the year:

(a) 1776
(b) 1789
(c) 1791
(d) None of these

(viii) On what date the electors for the election of President are elected under the US Constitution?

(a) 1st Tuesday of November, leap year
(b) 4th November, leap year
(c) Tuesday after 1st Monday of November, leap year
(d) None of these

(ix) An Amendment in the US constitution becomes effective on its approval by the congress and a minimum special number of states which is:

(a) Abstract majority
(b) 2/3 States
(c) ¾ States
(d) None of these

(x) What is the maximum continuous period a person can be president of USA.

(a) 04 years
(b) 08 years
(c) more than 08 years
(d) None of these

(xi) What is term used for upper house under Indian Constitution?

(a) Council of States
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Senate
(d) None of these (Rajiya Sabha)


(xii) The federating units of India are called:

(a) Provinces
(b) Territories
(c) States
(d) None of these

(xiii) Who appoints the governor in India?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) None of these

(xiv) The Indian Government at national level is called?

(a) Federal Governemnt
(b) Central Government
(c) Union Government
(d) None of these

(xv) The Prime Minister of India is:

(a) Elected by Parliament
(b) Elected by upper house
(c) appointed by President
(d) None of these

(xvi) What is the commencing day of Pakistan Constitution 1973?

(a) 1st January 1973
(b) 23rd March 1973
(c) 14th August 1973
(d) None of these

(xvii) Which Article of Pakistan Constitution 1973 deal with ‘Islamic Way of life’?

(a) Article-2
(b)Article-4
(c)Article-37
(d) None of these (Article 31)

(xviii) The Northern Areas of Pakistan are under the control of:

(a) NWFP Government
(b) Azad Jammu & Kashmir Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) None of these

(xix) Article 184 of Constitution of Pakistan 1973 provides for:

(a) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
(b) appellate jurisdiction of supreme court
(c) advisory jurisdiction of supreme court
(d) None of these

(xx) What is the ordinary life of a gubernatorial Ordinance under the Constitution of Pakistan 1973 ?

(a) Unlimited
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) None of these


PART – II



NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions form PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. Discuss the supremacy of British Parliament in its historical context by giving examples from British constitutional history. Are there any practical limitations on its supremacy?

Q.3. What are the source of British Constitution? Explain them with reference to their significance.

Q.4. Discuss in detail the role of Senate in USA?

Q.5. Explain the concept of ‘Due Process of Law’ under US Constitution and compare it with ‘Rule of Law’ in United Kingdom.

Q.6. Discuss the provisions of Pakistan Constitution relating to Human Rights.

Q.7. Explain Federation under the Constitution of India.

Q.8. Explain the system of Droit Administrating in France.

 

CSS Exam Constitutional Law 2009 Group-F Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Constitutional Law


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) What is the constitutional title used for the British head of State?

(a)Prime Minister
(b) Crown
(c) Monarch
(d) None of these

(ii) Parliamentary system of UK is the product of:

(a) Rule of Law
(b) Conventions
(c) Prerogations of crown
(d) None of these

(iii) Which Act of parliaments protects the Independence of judiciary in UK?

(a) Bill of Rights
(b) Magna Carta
(c) Act of Settlement
(d) None of these

(iv) The office of the British Prime Minister is the creature of:

(a) Customs
(b) Precedent
(c) Act of Parliament
(d) None of these

(v) The English Common Law is based on:

(a) Statute Law
(b) Precedents
(c) Conventions
(d) None of these

(vi) How many US Presidents actually faced impeachment?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of these

(vii) The Bill of Rights became part of US constitution in the year:

(a) 1776
(b) 1789
(c) 1791
(d) None of these

(viii) On what date the electors for the election of President are elected under the US Constitution?

(a) 1st Tuesday of November, leap year
(b) 4th November, leap year
(c) Tuesday after 1st Monday of November, leap year
(d) None of these

(ix) An Amendment in the US constitution becomes effective on its approval by the congress and a minimum special number of states which is:

(a) Abstract majority
(b) 2/3 States
(c) ¾ States
(d) None of these

(x) What is the maximum continuous period a person can be president of USA.

(a) 04 years
(b) 08 years
(c) more than 08 years
(d) None of these

(xi) What is term used for upper house under Indian Constitution?

(a) Council of States
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Senate
(d) None of these (Rajiya Sabha)


(xii) The federating units of India are called:

(a) Provinces
(b) Territories
(c) States
(d) None of these

(xiii) Who appoints the governor in India?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) None of these

(xiv) The Indian Government at national level is called?

(a) Federal Governemnt
(b) Central Government
(c) Union Government
(d) None of these

(xv) The Prime Minister of India is:

(a) Elected by Parliament
(b) Elected by upper house
(c) appointed by President
(d) None of these

(xvi) What is the commencing day of Pakistan Constitution 1973?

(a) 1st January 1973
(b) 23rd March 1973
(c) 14th August 1973
(d) None of these

(xvii) Which Article of Pakistan Constitution 1973 deal with ‘Islamic Way of life’?

(a) Article-2
(b)Article-4
(c)Article-37
(d) None of these (Article 31)

(xviii) The Northern Areas of Pakistan are under the control of:

(a) NWFP Government
(b) Azad Jammu & Kashmir Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) None of these

(xix) Article 184 of Constitution of Pakistan 1973 provides for:

(a) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
(b) appellate jurisdiction of supreme court
(c) advisory jurisdiction of supreme court
(d) None of these

(xx) What is the ordinary life of a gubernatorial Ordinance under the Constitution of Pakistan 1973 ?

(a) Unlimited
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) None of these


PART – II



NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions form PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. Discuss the supremacy of British Parliament in its historical context by giving examples from British constitutional history. Are there any practical limitations on its supremacy?

Q.3. What are the source of British Constitution? Explain them with reference to their significance.

Q.4. Discuss in detail the role of Senate in USA?

Q.5. Explain the concept of ‘Due Process of Law’ under US Constitution and compare it with ‘Rule of Law’ in United Kingdom.

Q.6. Discuss the provisions of Pakistan Constitution relating to Human Rights.

Q.7. Explain Federation under the Constitution of India.

Q.8. Explain the system of Droit Administrating in France.

 

Posted at 3/19/2013 06:56:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

History of the USA
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) During his first voyage, Columbus accidentally landed at the:
(a) Virgin Islands
(b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Watlings Island in the Bahamas
(d) Northern Mariana Islands
(e) None of these

(ii) Which of the following English Colonies in America was named after Queen Elizabeth?
(a) Maryland
(b) Florida
(c) Virginia
(d) Georgia
(e) None of these

(iii) Which of the following States in the United States of America was famous for its gold mines?
(a) Maryland
(b) Vermont
(c) California
(d) Massachusetts
(e) None of these

(iv) The first permanent and successful English Colony in America, Jamestown Virginia, was founded in the year:
(a) 1492
(b) 1592
(c) 1607
(d) 1707
(e) None of these

(v) The Pilgrims from England reached Plymouth (New England) in a ship called:
(a) Nina
(b) Pinta
(c) Mayflower
(d) Leopard
(e) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(vi) Which one of the following leaders of American Revolution was also a scientist, a printer, a satirist and a political philosopher?
(a) Samuel Adams
(b) John Adams
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Thomas Jefferson
(e) None of these

(vii) How many political parties are mentioned by name in the U.S. Constitution?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these

(viii) The Bill of Rights was incorporated in the U.S. Constitution in the year:
(a) 1787
(b) 1789
(c) 1790
(d) 1791
(e) None of these

(ix) Who was elected as President of the Confederacy when the seceding Southern Slave State announced their secession from United States of America and founded the Confederate States of America in 1861?
(a) Thomas Jefferson
(b) Jefferson Davis
(c) James Madison
(d) Aaron Burr
(e) None of these

(x) In which capacity did Alexander Hamilton work with George Washington, the first President of United States of America:
(a) Secretary of Defense
(b) Secretary of State
(c) Secretary of Treasury
(d) Attorney General
(e) None of these

(xi) One of the first two political factions in United States, the Democratic Republicans, was led by:
(a) Jefferson Davis
(b) Alexander Hamilton
(c) Thomas Jefferson
(d) George Washington
(e) None of these

(xii) The Treaty of Paris in 1783 fixed the Western boundary of the United States at the River:
(a) Missouri
(b) Kentucky
(c) Mississippi
(d) Potomac
(e) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xiii) During Jefferson’s Presidency, Robert R. Livingstone was the U.S. Minister to:
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) France
(d) Russia
(e) None of these

(xiv) Under which treaty United States acquired Florida from Spain?
(a) Treaty of Paris
(b) Adams-Onis Treaty
(c) Pinckney’s Treaty
(d) Jay’s Treaty
(e) None of these

(xv) Which of the American Presidents won four consecutive presidential elections and remained president for the longest period of time:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Franklin Delano Roosevelt
(d) Harry S. Truman
(e) None of these

(xvi) Alaska was acquired by United States from:
(a) Spain
(b) England
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
(e) None of these

(xvii) Which of the American presidents was responsible for the Apollo Project that resulted in the man’s landing on the surface of moon?
(a) Dwight David Eisenhower
(b) John F. Kennedy
(c) Lyndon Baines Johnson
(d) Richard Nixon
(e) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xviii) Which of the American Presidents was present at the time of the signing of the Camp David Accords between Egypt and Israel?
(a) John F. Kennedy
(b) Richard Nixon
(c) Jimmy Carter
(d) Ronald Reagan
(e) None of these

(xix) Which of the American presidents called the former Soviet Union “An Evil Empire”?
(a) Richard Nixon
(b) Jimmy Carter
(c) Ronald Reagan
(d) George Herbert Walker Bush
(e) None of these

(xx) Which one of the American presidents remained the head of the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) before becoming the president?
(a) Richard Nixon
(b) Jimmy Carter
(c) George Herbert Walker Bush
(d) Gerald Rudolph Ford
(e) None of these

PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q.2. Why England failed to take the initiative in the colonization of the American continent? What factors were responsible for the British interest in establishing their colonies in the areas that are now part of the United States of America? (20)

Q.3. What were the major flaws in the Articles of Confederation (the first constitution of the United States of America) that led to the Philadelphia Convention and the drafting of a new constitution? Discuss the salient features of the present constitution of the United States of America. (20)

Q.4. Thomas Jefferson was termed “a bull in the china closet” by the Federalists when he became the President of the United States of America but his policies and performance negated this impression.
Discuss. (20)

Q.5. Discuss the major factors responsible for the ‘sectional divide’ between the Northern and the Southern states of the United States of America that finally led to the American Civil War. (20)

Q.6. Discuss in the details the causes and effects of the Great Depression on the people and society of the United States of America. (20)

Q.7. Write a comprehensive note on the Black Civil Rights Movement in America for equal civil rights and the role played in it by different individuals and organizations. (20)

Q.8. Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following: (20)

(i) The Truman Doctrine and the Marshal Plan
(ii) The Watergate Scandal
(iii) The Scandals and controversies involving President William Jefferson Bill Clinton
(iv) The U.S. foreign policy in the light of 9/11 and the War on Terror

CSS Exam USA History 2009 Group-E Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

History of the USA
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) During his first voyage, Columbus accidentally landed at the:
(a) Virgin Islands
(b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Watlings Island in the Bahamas
(d) Northern Mariana Islands
(e) None of these

(ii) Which of the following English Colonies in America was named after Queen Elizabeth?
(a) Maryland
(b) Florida
(c) Virginia
(d) Georgia
(e) None of these

(iii) Which of the following States in the United States of America was famous for its gold mines?
(a) Maryland
(b) Vermont
(c) California
(d) Massachusetts
(e) None of these

(iv) The first permanent and successful English Colony in America, Jamestown Virginia, was founded in the year:
(a) 1492
(b) 1592
(c) 1607
(d) 1707
(e) None of these

(v) The Pilgrims from England reached Plymouth (New England) in a ship called:
(a) Nina
(b) Pinta
(c) Mayflower
(d) Leopard
(e) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(vi) Which one of the following leaders of American Revolution was also a scientist, a printer, a satirist and a political philosopher?
(a) Samuel Adams
(b) John Adams
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Thomas Jefferson
(e) None of these

(vii) How many political parties are mentioned by name in the U.S. Constitution?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these

(viii) The Bill of Rights was incorporated in the U.S. Constitution in the year:
(a) 1787
(b) 1789
(c) 1790
(d) 1791
(e) None of these

(ix) Who was elected as President of the Confederacy when the seceding Southern Slave State announced their secession from United States of America and founded the Confederate States of America in 1861?
(a) Thomas Jefferson
(b) Jefferson Davis
(c) James Madison
(d) Aaron Burr
(e) None of these

(x) In which capacity did Alexander Hamilton work with George Washington, the first President of United States of America:
(a) Secretary of Defense
(b) Secretary of State
(c) Secretary of Treasury
(d) Attorney General
(e) None of these

(xi) One of the first two political factions in United States, the Democratic Republicans, was led by:
(a) Jefferson Davis
(b) Alexander Hamilton
(c) Thomas Jefferson
(d) George Washington
(e) None of these

(xii) The Treaty of Paris in 1783 fixed the Western boundary of the United States at the River:
(a) Missouri
(b) Kentucky
(c) Mississippi
(d) Potomac
(e) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xiii) During Jefferson’s Presidency, Robert R. Livingstone was the U.S. Minister to:
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) France
(d) Russia
(e) None of these

(xiv) Under which treaty United States acquired Florida from Spain?
(a) Treaty of Paris
(b) Adams-Onis Treaty
(c) Pinckney’s Treaty
(d) Jay’s Treaty
(e) None of these

(xv) Which of the American Presidents won four consecutive presidential elections and remained president for the longest period of time:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Franklin Delano Roosevelt
(d) Harry S. Truman
(e) None of these

(xvi) Alaska was acquired by United States from:
(a) Spain
(b) England
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
(e) None of these

(xvii) Which of the American presidents was responsible for the Apollo Project that resulted in the man’s landing on the surface of moon?
(a) Dwight David Eisenhower
(b) John F. Kennedy
(c) Lyndon Baines Johnson
(d) Richard Nixon
(e) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
(xviii) Which of the American Presidents was present at the time of the signing of the Camp David Accords between Egypt and Israel?
(a) John F. Kennedy
(b) Richard Nixon
(c) Jimmy Carter
(d) Ronald Reagan
(e) None of these

(xix) Which of the American presidents called the former Soviet Union “An Evil Empire”?
(a) Richard Nixon
(b) Jimmy Carter
(c) Ronald Reagan
(d) George Herbert Walker Bush
(e) None of these

(xx) Which one of the American presidents remained the head of the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) before becoming the president?
(a) Richard Nixon
(b) Jimmy Carter
(c) George Herbert Walker Bush
(d) Gerald Rudolph Ford
(e) None of these

PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q.2. Why England failed to take the initiative in the colonization of the American continent? What factors were responsible for the British interest in establishing their colonies in the areas that are now part of the United States of America? (20)

Q.3. What were the major flaws in the Articles of Confederation (the first constitution of the United States of America) that led to the Philadelphia Convention and the drafting of a new constitution? Discuss the salient features of the present constitution of the United States of America. (20)

Q.4. Thomas Jefferson was termed “a bull in the china closet” by the Federalists when he became the President of the United States of America but his policies and performance negated this impression.
Discuss. (20)

Q.5. Discuss the major factors responsible for the ‘sectional divide’ between the Northern and the Southern states of the United States of America that finally led to the American Civil War. (20)

Q.6. Discuss in the details the causes and effects of the Great Depression on the people and society of the United States of America. (20)

Q.7. Write a comprehensive note on the Black Civil Rights Movement in America for equal civil rights and the role played in it by different individuals and organizations. (20)

Q.8. Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following: (20)

(i) The Truman Doctrine and the Marshal Plan
(ii) The Watergate Scandal
(iii) The Scandals and controversies involving President William Jefferson Bill Clinton
(iv) The U.S. foreign policy in the light of 9/11 and the War on Terror

Posted at 3/19/2013 06:47:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Islamic History and Culture Paper I
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

1.The Holy Quran was first compiled during the caliphate of Hazrat---------:

a)Muhammad (PBUH)
b)Abu Bakar Siddique(R.A)
c) Uthman (R.A)
d)none of these

2. Hazrat Umer was Caliph for---------------:
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 10 years
d) none of these

3.The orthodox caliphate lasted for---------- :

a) 26 years
b) 29 years
c) 32 years
d)none of these
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4.Hazrat Ali was martyred in the year---------:

a) 650 AD
b) 656 AD
c) 661 AD
d)none of these

5.The Umayyad Dynasty was put to an end in the year----------:

a)660 AD
b)750 AD
c)770 AD
d)None of these

6.The Abbasid Dynasty ruled for just over---------:

a)five centuries
b)two centuries
c)three centuries
d)none of these

7.The Islamic calendar(hijra) started in the year-----------:

a)622 AD
b)620 AD
c)621 AD
d)none of these

8.The famous Al-Muwatta was written by:

a)Imam Malik
b)Imam Abu Hanifa
c)Imam Muslim
d)Imam Hanbal

9.The Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) migrated to Madina in-------------:
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
a) 615 AD
b) 622 AD
c) 625 AD
d)none of these

10.The last Umayyad ruler at Damascus was--------:

a)Marwan II
b)Abdul Aziz
c) Abdul Rahman
d) none of these


11.The founder of Umayyad Dynasty was---------:

a)Yazid
b)Abd al Malik
c)Muawiyah I
d) none of these

12.Baybars, the Mamluke Sultan of Egypt, took----------to install him as Abbasid caliph in Cairo on the year 1261 AD:

a) Al-Mustansir
b) Al-Hakim
c) Al-Mustakfi-I
d)None of these

13.The founder of Umayyad Dynasty in Spain was-------:

a)Khalid bin Walid
b)Moosa bin Nysair
c)Abdur Rahman I
d)None of these

14.The Ottoman Sultan Salim took------from cairo to Istanbul to install him as Caliph:

a) Al-Mutawakkil III
b) Al-Qa’im
c) Al-Mustamsik
d)None of these

15. Under which Caliph, Sindh was invaded by Muhammad bin Qasim in 711 AD?

a) Muawiyah
b) Al-Walid I
c) Abdul Malik
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
d)None of these

16.When did the Ottomans cross into Europe:

a) 1357 AD
b) 1520 AD
c) 1550 AD
d)None of these

17.When was Hungary brought under Ottoman rule?

a) 1521 AD
b) 1526 AD
c) 1530 AD
d)None of these

18.Kamal Attaturk ended the Ottoman Caliphate and deposed Abdul Majid II in-----

a) 1920
b) 1922
c) 1924
d)none of these

19. Which Ottoman Ruler took the Abbasid Caliphate to Istanbul?

a) Sulaiman I
b) Salim I
c) Al-Mustansar
d)None of these

20. The Ottoman Empire lasted for over----------

a) Five Centuries
b) Six Centuries
c) Seven Centuries
d)None of these



PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q.2. The Holy Prophet peace and blessing be upon him, gave a charter for the welfare of humanity, discuss the salient feature of that charter.

Q.3. The Holy Quran and Sunnah set forth the path for believers in the quest of knowledge .Discuss the examples.

Q.4. Give an account on the expansion of the Islamic state during the period of Orthodox Caliphs.

Q.5. Write short notes on ANY TWO on the following:
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1) Ashra Mubashra
2) Khulfa-i-Rashedin
3) Al-Muwatta
4) Ibn-Khaldun
5) Damascus Mosque
6) Dome of the Rock
7) Samarra

Q.6. How did the Abbasid Court patronize the philosophical, scientific and literary progress?

Q.7. Why do the Europeans call Sulaiman I, as Sulaiman the Magnificient?

Q.8. Give an account of the the conquest of Europe by the Ottomans










FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Islamic History and Culture Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



1.Spain was invaded in 711 AD by ---------:

a) Tariq bin Ziyad
b) Abd al Rahman I
c) Khalid bin Walid
d)none of these

2. The al-Qairawan in North Africa was founded in 670 AD by---------------:
a) Musa bin Nusayr
b) Suleman I
c) Uqbah
d) none of these
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3.The conquests of Hujjaj in the East matched the Western conquests by ---------- :

a Musa bin Nusayr
b) Tariq bin Ziyad
c) al-Mutawakkil
d)none of these

4.Abdul Aziz married Egilona, the widow of king Roderick, and named her ---------:

a) Umm-Asim
b) Umm-Kulsum
c) Umm-Hani
d)none of these

5.The Umayyad Dynasty was put to an end in the year----------:

a)661 AD
b)750 AD
c)770 AD
d)None of these

6.The Abbasid Dynasty ruled for just over---------:

a) two centuries
b) three centuries
c) five centuries
d)none of these

7.Baghdad was put on fire in 1258 AD by -----------

a) The Umayyads
b) The Mongols
c) The Ottomans
d)none of these

8.Musa bin Nusayr was the Governor of---------

a) Egypt
b) Spain
c) North Africa
d) none of these

9.The fugitive Umayyad prince reached Spain in the year -------------:

a) 755 AD
b) 750 AD
c) 760 AD
d)none of these

10.The last Umayyad ruler in 750 AD was--------:

a) Hisham
b) Marwan II
c) Yazid III
d) none of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}
11.The name of the French King who attacked Spain in 777 AD was ---------:

a) Roderick
b) Charlemagne
c) Alfonso
d) none of these

12.Ibn Khuldun is generally known as a-------

a) Mathematician
b) Astronomer
c) Historian
d) None of these

13.The real founder of Umayyad Dynasty in Spain was-------:

a) Tariq bin Ziyad
b) Moosa bin Nysair
c) Abdur Rahman I
d) None of these

14.The Arabs invaded Spain in the year-------

a) 711 AD
b) 750 AD
c) 756 AD
d) None of these

15.Which Caliph recalled Musa bin Nusayr to Damascus-------?

a) al Walid-I
b) Abdul Aziz
c) Abdul Malik
d)None of these

16. Who punished Musa bin Nusayr for invading Spain---------?

a) Sulaiman
b) Abdul Aziz
c) Amr Thaqafi
d)None of these

17.After ruling over Spain for one year who refused to give turn to the Yamanites?

a) Abdur Rahman-II
b) al-Hakam
c) Abdur Rahman al-Fehri
d) None of these

18.The new capital established by Abbasid in 835 AD is called -----

a) al-Mansurah
b) Samarra
c) Kufa/Basra
d) none of these

19. Abdur Rahman-II of Spain went out to receive a minstrel called--------

a) Khalid
b) Ziryab
c) Walid
d) None of these
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20.Cordova and Baghdad served to the West as main centres for------------

a) Rivalry
b) Treasures
c) Learning
d) None of these






PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


{www.Mehnat.Pk}



Q.2. Give an account of the conquest of spain; who made it a stabe and prosperous Muslim state?

Q.3. What fate did Tariq Bin Ziyad and Musa bin Nusayr meet after invasion of spain?

Q.4. Write a note on the Muslim's contribution in Spain in natural or social sciences.

Q.5. Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following:

1) al-Hambra
2) Cordoba
3) Gibralter
4) al-Qairawan
5) Mudarites
6) Yamanites
7) Abdur Rahman-I
8) Hisham
9) Al-Hakam

Q.6. What is the historical significance of Samarra as Capital of the Abbasids?

Q.7. How Did Imam Malik's Muwatta leave a strong impact in spain, Discuss?

Q.8. The scientific and literary progress of the Muslims in spain and Baghdad laid the foundation of renaissance in Europe, discuss with evidence.

 

CSS Exam Islamic History & Culture 2009 Group-E Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

This Paper is Presented by Mehnat.Pk

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Islamic History and Culture Paper I
{www.Mehnat.Pk}

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

1.The Holy Quran was first compiled during the caliphate of Hazrat---------:

a)Muhammad (PBUH)
b)Abu Bakar Siddique(R.A)
c) Uthman (R.A)
d)none of these

2. Hazrat Umer was Caliph for---------------:
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 10 years
d) none of these

3.The orthodox caliphate lasted for---------- :

a) 26 years
b) 29 years
c) 32 years
d)none of these
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4.Hazrat Ali was martyred in the year---------:

a) 650 AD
b) 656 AD
c) 661 AD
d)none of these

5.The Umayyad Dynasty was put to an end in the year----------:

a)660 AD
b)750 AD
c)770 AD
d)None of these

6.The Abbasid Dynasty ruled for just over---------:

a)five centuries
b)two centuries
c)three centuries
d)none of these

7.The Islamic calendar(hijra) started in the year-----------:

a)622 AD
b)620 AD
c)621 AD
d)none of these

8.The famous Al-Muwatta was written by:

a)Imam Malik
b)Imam Abu Hanifa
c)Imam Muslim
d)Imam Hanbal

9.The Holy Prophet (P.B.U.H) migrated to Madina in-------------:
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a) 615 AD
b) 622 AD
c) 625 AD
d)none of these

10.The last Umayyad ruler at Damascus was--------:

a)Marwan II
b)Abdul Aziz
c) Abdul Rahman
d) none of these


11.The founder of Umayyad Dynasty was---------:

a)Yazid
b)Abd al Malik
c)Muawiyah I
d) none of these

12.Baybars, the Mamluke Sultan of Egypt, took----------to install him as Abbasid caliph in Cairo on the year 1261 AD:

a) Al-Mustansir
b) Al-Hakim
c) Al-Mustakfi-I
d)None of these

13.The founder of Umayyad Dynasty in Spain was-------:

a)Khalid bin Walid
b)Moosa bin Nysair
c)Abdur Rahman I
d)None of these

14.The Ottoman Sultan Salim took------from cairo to Istanbul to install him as Caliph:

a) Al-Mutawakkil III
b) Al-Qa’im
c) Al-Mustamsik
d)None of these

15. Under which Caliph, Sindh was invaded by Muhammad bin Qasim in 711 AD?

a) Muawiyah
b) Al-Walid I
c) Abdul Malik
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d)None of these

16.When did the Ottomans cross into Europe:

a) 1357 AD
b) 1520 AD
c) 1550 AD
d)None of these

17.When was Hungary brought under Ottoman rule?

a) 1521 AD
b) 1526 AD
c) 1530 AD
d)None of these

18.Kamal Attaturk ended the Ottoman Caliphate and deposed Abdul Majid II in-----

a) 1920
b) 1922
c) 1924
d)none of these

19. Which Ottoman Ruler took the Abbasid Caliphate to Istanbul?

a) Sulaiman I
b) Salim I
c) Al-Mustansar
d)None of these

20. The Ottoman Empire lasted for over----------

a) Five Centuries
b) Six Centuries
c) Seven Centuries
d)None of these



PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.



Q.2. The Holy Prophet peace and blessing be upon him, gave a charter for the welfare of humanity, discuss the salient feature of that charter.

Q.3. The Holy Quran and Sunnah set forth the path for believers in the quest of knowledge .Discuss the examples.

Q.4. Give an account on the expansion of the Islamic state during the period of Orthodox Caliphs.

Q.5. Write short notes on ANY TWO on the following:
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1) Ashra Mubashra
2) Khulfa-i-Rashedin
3) Al-Muwatta
4) Ibn-Khaldun
5) Damascus Mosque
6) Dome of the Rock
7) Samarra

Q.6. How did the Abbasid Court patronize the philosophical, scientific and literary progress?

Q.7. Why do the Europeans call Sulaiman I, as Sulaiman the Magnificient?

Q.8. Give an account of the the conquest of Europe by the Ottomans










FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Islamic History and Culture Paper II


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit. Use of Calculator is allowed.


PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)




Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)



1.Spain was invaded in 711 AD by ---------:

a) Tariq bin Ziyad
b) Abd al Rahman I
c) Khalid bin Walid
d)none of these

2. The al-Qairawan in North Africa was founded in 670 AD by---------------:
a) Musa bin Nusayr
b) Suleman I
c) Uqbah
d) none of these
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3.The conquests of Hujjaj in the East matched the Western conquests by ---------- :

a Musa bin Nusayr
b) Tariq bin Ziyad
c) al-Mutawakkil
d)none of these

4.Abdul Aziz married Egilona, the widow of king Roderick, and named her ---------:

a) Umm-Asim
b) Umm-Kulsum
c) Umm-Hani
d)none of these

5.The Umayyad Dynasty was put to an end in the year----------:

a)661 AD
b)750 AD
c)770 AD
d)None of these

6.The Abbasid Dynasty ruled for just over---------:

a) two centuries
b) three centuries
c) five centuries
d)none of these

7.Baghdad was put on fire in 1258 AD by -----------

a) The Umayyads
b) The Mongols
c) The Ottomans
d)none of these

8.Musa bin Nusayr was the Governor of---------

a) Egypt
b) Spain
c) North Africa
d) none of these

9.The fugitive Umayyad prince reached Spain in the year -------------:

a) 755 AD
b) 750 AD
c) 760 AD
d)none of these

10.The last Umayyad ruler in 750 AD was--------:

a) Hisham
b) Marwan II
c) Yazid III
d) none of these

{www.Mehnat.Pk}
11.The name of the French King who attacked Spain in 777 AD was ---------:

a) Roderick
b) Charlemagne
c) Alfonso
d) none of these

12.Ibn Khuldun is generally known as a-------

a) Mathematician
b) Astronomer
c) Historian
d) None of these

13.The real founder of Umayyad Dynasty in Spain was-------:

a) Tariq bin Ziyad
b) Moosa bin Nysair
c) Abdur Rahman I
d) None of these

14.The Arabs invaded Spain in the year-------

a) 711 AD
b) 750 AD
c) 756 AD
d) None of these

15.Which Caliph recalled Musa bin Nusayr to Damascus-------?

a) al Walid-I
b) Abdul Aziz
c) Abdul Malik
d)None of these

16. Who punished Musa bin Nusayr for invading Spain---------?

a) Sulaiman
b) Abdul Aziz
c) Amr Thaqafi
d)None of these

17.After ruling over Spain for one year who refused to give turn to the Yamanites?

a) Abdur Rahman-II
b) al-Hakam
c) Abdur Rahman al-Fehri
d) None of these

18.The new capital established by Abbasid in 835 AD is called -----

a) al-Mansurah
b) Samarra
c) Kufa/Basra
d) none of these

19. Abdur Rahman-II of Spain went out to receive a minstrel called--------

a) Khalid
b) Ziryab
c) Walid
d) None of these
{www.Mehnat.Pk}
20.Cordova and Baghdad served to the West as main centres for------------

a) Rivalry
b) Treasures
c) Learning
d) None of these






PART – II


(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


{www.Mehnat.Pk}



Q.2. Give an account of the conquest of spain; who made it a stabe and prosperous Muslim state?

Q.3. What fate did Tariq Bin Ziyad and Musa bin Nusayr meet after invasion of spain?

Q.4. Write a note on the Muslim's contribution in Spain in natural or social sciences.

Q.5. Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following:

1) al-Hambra
2) Cordoba
3) Gibralter
4) al-Qairawan
5) Mudarites
6) Yamanites
7) Abdur Rahman-I
8) Hisham
9) Al-Hakam

Q.6. What is the historical significance of Samarra as Capital of the Abbasids?

Q.7. How Did Imam Malik's Muwatta leave a strong impact in spain, Discuss?

Q.8. The scientific and literary progress of the Muslims in spain and Baghdad laid the foundation of renaissance in Europe, discuss with evidence.

 

Posted at 3/19/2013 06:41:00 pm |  by Muhammad Kashaan
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